QUESTION 1
When planning to deploy a KDE Gateway, which two IBM Tivoli Monitoring components must be configured to add the KDE Gateway configuration? (Choose two.)
A. Warehouse Proxy Agent
B. Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server
C. Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Agent
D. Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server
E. Summarization and Pruning Agent
Answer: CD
QUESTION 2
Which protocol can an agent use to send messages to an event management system when the agent is running in Autonomous mode?
A. XML
B. SSH
C. SOAP
D. SNMP
Answer: D
QUESTION 3
A customer wants fully autonomous monitoring for their operating systems which are based in a place with these restrictions:
The traditional operating system agents (the knt, klz, and kux agents that monitor the Windows, Linux, and UNIX operating environments) cannot be used directly. Which statement is true in order to meet the customer's requirements?
A. IBM Tivoli Monitoring (ITM) will not be the right solution because of the relatively large agent footprint.
B. ITM will not be the right solution because Java is required for all ITM agents to operate.
C. The traditional ITM operating system agents must be configured for Autonomous Mode.
D. The customer will have to deploy the System Monitor Agents which provide autonomous- only
monitoring for their operating systems.
Answer: D
QUESTION 4
What information must be collected in order to plan a Hub Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server in an IBM Tivoli Monitoring V6.2.2 (ITM) implementation?
A. The location of the servers to be monitored.
B. Which applications are running on the monitored servers?
C. The number of servers and applications monitored by ITM.
D. How many users are logged into each of the monitored servers?
Answer: C
QUESTION 5
What are two considerations before installing any IBM Tivoli Monitoring component in an environment where a single or multiple firewall(s) exist? (Choose two.)
A. Open only one port on the firewall(s).
B. Opening as few ports on the firewall(s) as possible.
C. The existing firewall(s) must be moved and/or uninstalled.
D. Location of components to be installed relation to existing firewall(s).
E. If a single or multiple firewall exists then the KDE gateway must be used.
Answer: BD
QUESTION 6
Which two pieces of information must be collected in order to select the appropriate monitoring agent? (Choose two.)
A. The applications to be monitored.
B. The firewalls in the company's network.
C. The size of the data warehouse database.
D. The operating system of the servers to be monitored.
E. The operating system of the Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server.
Answer: AD
QUESTION 7
According to the IBM Tivoli Monitoring V6.2.2 Installation and Setup Guide, what is the maximum number of agents that a remote Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server (RTEMS) can handle?
A. 500
B. 1500
C. 2500
D. 3500
Answer: B
QUESTION 8
An agentless monitoring server is installed with these active agentless monitor instance types started: 2 AIX, 2 Linux, 2 Solaris, 2 Windows. What is the maximum number of systems that can be monitored?
A. 8
B. 80
C. 800
D. 8000
Answer: C
QUESTION 9
Which three database products are supported for the Tivoli Data Warehouse database? (Choose three.)
A. Derby
B. Oracle
C. Sybase
D. MS SQL
E. IBM DB2
F. IBM Informix
Answer: BDE
QUESTION 10
A customer must perform trend analysis for future growth. Which product should be included in the design?
A. IBM System Director
B. IBM Tivoli Common Reporting
C. IBM Tivoli Performance Analyzer
D. IBM Tivoli Monitoring Agent Builder
Answer: C
QUESTION 11
Which two items can be specified while configuring a Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server (TEMS)? (Choose two.)
A. TEMS gateways
B. configure Hot Standby TEMS
C. Tivoli Event Integration Facility
D. hostname of the data warehouse server
E. hostname of the Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server
Answer: BC
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QUESTION 1
What does the Refresh Interval setting refer to when configuring the Management Extender for Lotus Traveler?
A. How often in minutes that the mobile devices being managed report to the management extender.
B. How often in seconds that the console refreshes when viewing the managed mobile device inventory.
C. How often in seconds that the IBM Lotus Traveler server attempts to contact the devices being managed.
D. How often in minutes that the management extender will refresh the managed device reports sent to the IBM Endpoint Manager server.
Answer: D
QUESTION 2
Which certificate needs to be installed on the iOS Management Extender for an iOS device to be managed?
A. HTTPS certificate
B. Encryption certificate
C. IBM Endpoint Manager client certificate
D. Apple Push Notification Service certificate
Answer: D
QUESTION 3
How can access to the App Store be restricted on iOS devices using IBM Endpoint Manager for Mobile Devices?
A. black list the AppStore
B. run the Block App Store fixlet
C. create and deploy a Restriction profile
D. create and deploy a Credentials profile
Answer: C
QUESTION 4
Where is the NitroDesk TouchDown installation package available?
A. It is provided by the IBM account team.
B. It is available for download from the Google Play store.
C. It is installed simultaneously with the IBM Mobile Client application on iOS devices.
D. It is installed simultaneously with the IBM Mobile Client application on Android devices.
Answer: B
QUESTION 5
Which API supports the optional Advanced Device Correlation feature if enabled during the configuration of the Microsoft Exchange Management Extender?
A. MDM API
B. SOAP API
C. Big Fix Platform API
D. Exchange Web Services Managed API
Answer: B
QUESTION 6
On an Android device, which port does the Mobile Client use for communication with a relay or server?
A. 80
B. 443
C. 5223
D. 52311
Answer: D
QUESTION 7
Which statement is true regarding managed applications on iOS devices?
A. Managed applications are custom developed.
B. Managed applications can be silently uninstalled.
C. Data can be exchanged between managed applications.
D. A mobile devices operator can browse and check application data.
Answer: B
QUESTION 8
How can it be determined which devices are being managed using the IBM Sync protocol when viewing a list of devices in the Single Device View dashboard?
A. The value displayed in the Protocol column of the dashboard is set to IBM Sync.
B. The value displayed in the Extender Type column of the dashboard is set to Lotus Traveler.
C. The value displayed in the Data Source column of the dashboard is set to Lotus Traveler.
D. There is no way to determine the management protocol while viewing the dashboard in list mode.
Answer: C
QUESTION 9
How can the requirement for installing a self-signed certificate before enrollment be removed?
A. Encrypt the device before enrollment.
B. Register the certificate with a third parte certificate manager.
C. Replace the self-signed certificate with a certified certificate signed by a trusted party.
D. Create an IBM Endpoint Manager policy that automatically installs the self-signed certificate.
Answer: C
QUESTION 10
What can be enforced regardless of the kind of managed mobile devices either with direct management or with e-mail sync protocols?
A. apps blacklist
B. disable camera
C. password policy
D. disable Bluetooth
Answer: C
QUESTION 11
An IBM Endpoint Manager operator wants to edit an existing ActiveSync Mailbox policy. After accessing the MS Exchange Security Policies dashboard, they discover that no Exchange Mailbox profiles currently exist. What must be done before they can edit a mailbox profile?
A. Activate the ActiveSync User Agent analysis.
B. Run the List ActiveSync Mailbox Policy task to update the policy definition file.
C. Update the Mailbox policy list by clicking the dashboard refresh icon in the upper-right area of the dashboard.
D. Create an Exchange Mailbox profile by clicking the Add Policy button on the MS Exchange Security Policies dashboard.
Answer: B
QUESTION 12
What needs to be set in an iOS profile to prevent users from copying e-mail from a corporate account to a personal account?
A. Prevent Move must be checked
B. Prevent Copy must be checked
C. Allow Move must be unchecked
D. Allow Copy must be unchecked
Answer: C
QUESTION 13
Which software is needed on iOS devices to take advantage of all IBM Endpoint Manager management features on Apple devices?
A. the IBM Mobile Client application from the Apple App Store
B. the Apple Push Notifier application from the Apple App Store
C. no software is required on the devices, just install a management profile
D. the Mobile Management Dashboard application from the Apple App Store
Answer: A
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What does the Refresh Interval setting refer to when configuring the Management Extender for Lotus Traveler?
A. How often in minutes that the mobile devices being managed report to the management extender.
B. How often in seconds that the console refreshes when viewing the managed mobile device inventory.
C. How often in seconds that the IBM Lotus Traveler server attempts to contact the devices being managed.
D. How often in minutes that the management extender will refresh the managed device reports sent to the IBM Endpoint Manager server.
Answer: D
QUESTION 2
Which certificate needs to be installed on the iOS Management Extender for an iOS device to be managed?
A. HTTPS certificate
B. Encryption certificate
C. IBM Endpoint Manager client certificate
D. Apple Push Notification Service certificate
Answer: D
QUESTION 3
How can access to the App Store be restricted on iOS devices using IBM Endpoint Manager for Mobile Devices?
A. black list the AppStore
B. run the Block App Store fixlet
C. create and deploy a Restriction profile
D. create and deploy a Credentials profile
Answer: C
QUESTION 4
Where is the NitroDesk TouchDown installation package available?
A. It is provided by the IBM account team.
B. It is available for download from the Google Play store.
C. It is installed simultaneously with the IBM Mobile Client application on iOS devices.
D. It is installed simultaneously with the IBM Mobile Client application on Android devices.
Answer: B
QUESTION 5
Which API supports the optional Advanced Device Correlation feature if enabled during the configuration of the Microsoft Exchange Management Extender?
A. MDM API
B. SOAP API
C. Big Fix Platform API
D. Exchange Web Services Managed API
Answer: B
QUESTION 6
On an Android device, which port does the Mobile Client use for communication with a relay or server?
A. 80
B. 443
C. 5223
D. 52311
Answer: D
QUESTION 7
Which statement is true regarding managed applications on iOS devices?
A. Managed applications are custom developed.
B. Managed applications can be silently uninstalled.
C. Data can be exchanged between managed applications.
D. A mobile devices operator can browse and check application data.
Answer: B
QUESTION 8
How can it be determined which devices are being managed using the IBM Sync protocol when viewing a list of devices in the Single Device View dashboard?
A. The value displayed in the Protocol column of the dashboard is set to IBM Sync.
B. The value displayed in the Extender Type column of the dashboard is set to Lotus Traveler.
C. The value displayed in the Data Source column of the dashboard is set to Lotus Traveler.
D. There is no way to determine the management protocol while viewing the dashboard in list mode.
Answer: C
QUESTION 9
How can the requirement for installing a self-signed certificate before enrollment be removed?
A. Encrypt the device before enrollment.
B. Register the certificate with a third parte certificate manager.
C. Replace the self-signed certificate with a certified certificate signed by a trusted party.
D. Create an IBM Endpoint Manager policy that automatically installs the self-signed certificate.
Answer: C
QUESTION 10
What can be enforced regardless of the kind of managed mobile devices either with direct management or with e-mail sync protocols?
A. apps blacklist
B. disable camera
C. password policy
D. disable Bluetooth
Answer: C
QUESTION 11
An IBM Endpoint Manager operator wants to edit an existing ActiveSync Mailbox policy. After accessing the MS Exchange Security Policies dashboard, they discover that no Exchange Mailbox profiles currently exist. What must be done before they can edit a mailbox profile?
A. Activate the ActiveSync User Agent analysis.
B. Run the List ActiveSync Mailbox Policy task to update the policy definition file.
C. Update the Mailbox policy list by clicking the dashboard refresh icon in the upper-right area of the dashboard.
D. Create an Exchange Mailbox profile by clicking the Add Policy button on the MS Exchange Security Policies dashboard.
Answer: B
QUESTION 12
What needs to be set in an iOS profile to prevent users from copying e-mail from a corporate account to a personal account?
A. Prevent Move must be checked
B. Prevent Copy must be checked
C. Allow Move must be unchecked
D. Allow Copy must be unchecked
Answer: C
QUESTION 13
Which software is needed on iOS devices to take advantage of all IBM Endpoint Manager management features on Apple devices?
A. the IBM Mobile Client application from the Apple App Store
B. the Apple Push Notifier application from the Apple App Store
C. no software is required on the devices, just install a management profile
D. the Mobile Management Dashboard application from the Apple App Store
Answer: A
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QUESTION 1
Which utility applies database changes associated with an IBM Maximo Asset Management fix pack installation?
A. dbupdate
B. updatedb
C. dbupgrade
D. upgradeui
Answer: B
QUESTION 2
What must be installed on a database before IBM Maximo Asset Management V7.5 is installed?
A. text searching
B. full DBA rights
C. Maximo schema
D. index tablespace
Answer: A
QUESTION 3
During a standard IBM Maximo Asset Management V7.5 installation, character fields under 26 characters are set to which default search type?
A. Text
B. Data
C. Exact
D. Wildcard
Answer: D
QUESTION 4
A company has recently installed IBM Maximo Asset Management 7.5 (Maximo) and experienced a few bugs that are fixed with the latest fix pack. The Maximo administrator shuts down the Maximo Java Virtual Machine and proceeds to uninstall all the Maximo applications from the J2EE server. Once the fix pack is installed, the administrator builds a new Maximo EAR and redeploys it to the J2EE server. The administrator logs in and validates the new fix pack has been installed by checking the version from Help > System Information and determines the fix pack installation was successful. Later that day the Help Desk calls and says that no one can view any application help information, and the help link is not available. Why?
A. The Maximo fix pack has disabled the help functions in Maximo.
B. The Maximo administrator did not install the Maximo fix pack correctly.
C. The Maximo administrator did not update the properties for the Help application.
D. The Maximo administrator did not build and deploy the maximoiehs.ear file after installing the fix pack.
Answer: D
QUESTION 5
Which two Start Center portlet(s) contains SQL that should be carefully examined if Start Center Performance is poor? (Choose two.)
A. KPIs
B. Favorites
C. Result Sets
D. Quick Insert
E. Bulletin Board
Answer: AC
QUESTION 6
There are 5 log message levels in IBM Maximo Asset Management V7.5 not including OFF which sets logging off. What are three valid log message levels? (Choose three.)
A. INFO
B. AUDIT
C. ERROR
D. DEBUG
E. SEVERE
F. VERBOSE
Answer: ACD
QUESTION 7
Which utility is used to report IBM Maximo Asset Management database errors prior to beginning a database upgrade?
A. configdb
B. TDToolkit
C. mtegrityui
D. CleanDatabase
Answer: C
QUESTION 8
What can cause the IBM Maximo Asset Management V7.5 installation to fail?
A. Simple file sharing is disabled.
B. The Windows firewall is disabled.
C. The database server is inaccessible.
D. The Oracle WebLogic Server is inaccessible.
Answer: C
QUESTION 9
Which two log files can help determine whether the IBM Maximo Asset Management database is configured successfully? (Choose two.)
A. maxinst.log
B. dbconfig.log
C. updatedb.log
D. dropbackup.log
E. restorefrombackup.log
Answer: AC
QUESTION 10
During an IBM Maximo for Transportation V7.5 installation a message appears saying it cannot be installed. Why?
A. IBM Maximo for Transportation V7.1 has been installed.
B. IBM Maximo for Transportation V7.1 has not been installed.
C. IBM Maximo Asset Management V7.5 has not been installed.
D. IBM Maximo Asset Management V7.1 only has been installed.
Answer: C
QUESTION 11
An IBM Maximo Asset Management V7.5 environment has a multi-EAR configuration. Each EAR file needs to be uniquely named based on its function. The multi-EAR configuration consists of a User Interface, Maximo Integration Framework, and CRON. Which option controls the name of the EAR file built with the buildmaximoear.cmd?
A. MAXIMO_HOME=
B. EAR_FILENAME=
C. BUILD_EAR_NAME=
D. MAXIMO PROPERTIES=
Answer: B
QUESTION 12
Which tool can be useful in determining whether a port is responding remotely?
A. telnet
B. netstat
C. portping
D. SOAP port utility
Answer: A
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Which utility applies database changes associated with an IBM Maximo Asset Management fix pack installation?
A. dbupdate
B. updatedb
C. dbupgrade
D. upgradeui
Answer: B
QUESTION 2
What must be installed on a database before IBM Maximo Asset Management V7.5 is installed?
A. text searching
B. full DBA rights
C. Maximo schema
D. index tablespace
Answer: A
QUESTION 3
During a standard IBM Maximo Asset Management V7.5 installation, character fields under 26 characters are set to which default search type?
A. Text
B. Data
C. Exact
D. Wildcard
Answer: D
QUESTION 4
A company has recently installed IBM Maximo Asset Management 7.5 (Maximo) and experienced a few bugs that are fixed with the latest fix pack. The Maximo administrator shuts down the Maximo Java Virtual Machine and proceeds to uninstall all the Maximo applications from the J2EE server. Once the fix pack is installed, the administrator builds a new Maximo EAR and redeploys it to the J2EE server. The administrator logs in and validates the new fix pack has been installed by checking the version from Help > System Information and determines the fix pack installation was successful. Later that day the Help Desk calls and says that no one can view any application help information, and the help link is not available. Why?
A. The Maximo fix pack has disabled the help functions in Maximo.
B. The Maximo administrator did not install the Maximo fix pack correctly.
C. The Maximo administrator did not update the properties for the Help application.
D. The Maximo administrator did not build and deploy the maximoiehs.ear file after installing the fix pack.
Answer: D
QUESTION 5
Which two Start Center portlet(s) contains SQL that should be carefully examined if Start Center Performance is poor? (Choose two.)
A. KPIs
B. Favorites
C. Result Sets
D. Quick Insert
E. Bulletin Board
Answer: AC
QUESTION 6
There are 5 log message levels in IBM Maximo Asset Management V7.5 not including OFF which sets logging off. What are three valid log message levels? (Choose three.)
A. INFO
B. AUDIT
C. ERROR
D. DEBUG
E. SEVERE
F. VERBOSE
Answer: ACD
QUESTION 7
Which utility is used to report IBM Maximo Asset Management database errors prior to beginning a database upgrade?
A. configdb
B. TDToolkit
C. mtegrityui
D. CleanDatabase
Answer: C
QUESTION 8
What can cause the IBM Maximo Asset Management V7.5 installation to fail?
A. Simple file sharing is disabled.
B. The Windows firewall is disabled.
C. The database server is inaccessible.
D. The Oracle WebLogic Server is inaccessible.
Answer: C
QUESTION 9
Which two log files can help determine whether the IBM Maximo Asset Management database is configured successfully? (Choose two.)
A. maxinst.log
B. dbconfig.log
C. updatedb.log
D. dropbackup.log
E. restorefrombackup.log
Answer: AC
QUESTION 10
During an IBM Maximo for Transportation V7.5 installation a message appears saying it cannot be installed. Why?
A. IBM Maximo for Transportation V7.1 has been installed.
B. IBM Maximo for Transportation V7.1 has not been installed.
C. IBM Maximo Asset Management V7.5 has not been installed.
D. IBM Maximo Asset Management V7.1 only has been installed.
Answer: C
QUESTION 11
An IBM Maximo Asset Management V7.5 environment has a multi-EAR configuration. Each EAR file needs to be uniquely named based on its function. The multi-EAR configuration consists of a User Interface, Maximo Integration Framework, and CRON. Which option controls the name of the EAR file built with the buildmaximoear.cmd?
A. MAXIMO_HOME=
B. EAR_FILENAME=
C. BUILD_EAR_NAME=
D. MAXIMO PROPERTIES=
Answer: B
QUESTION 12
Which tool can be useful in determining whether a port is responding remotely?
A. telnet
B. netstat
C. portping
D. SOAP port utility
Answer: A
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QUESTION 1
Which POWER6 virtualization technology is the minimum to enable multiple shared processor pool functionality?
A. PowerHA Standard Edition
B. PowerVM Standard Edition
C. Power6 Management Edition
D. Power6 Virtualization Edition
Answer: B
QUESTION 2
What is the minimum amount of memory required for a new LPAR to be built via NIM on AIX6.1?
A. 128 MB
B. 256 MB
C. 512 MB
D. 1024 MB
Answer: B
QUESTION 3
A recently installed package needs to be rolled back to aprevious version. Which of the following commands will perform the task?
A. reject
B. cleanup
C. deinstall
D. uninstall
Answer: A
QUESTION 4
How can a JFS2 filesystem be added to a volume groupthat has insufficient space to host a log LV?
A. Create the filesystem with an inline log.
B. Create the filesystem referring to the jfs2log in rootvg.
C. Create the filesystem and format the logical volume with 'logform'.
D. Create the filesystem's underlying logical volume with an inline log.
Answer: C
QUESTION 5
Which of the following allows multiple applications toshare a single operating system resource?
A. Logical Partition
B. Workload Partition
C. Dynamic Logical Partition
D. Shared Processor Logical Partition
Answer: B
QUESTION 6
When ordering a new IBM Power Systems server, a customer is given the option of two types of Hardware Management Console:7042-CR4 and 7042-C06.Which main difference between the options would influence the customer's decision?
A. The 7042-CR4 is a rack mounted model, compared to the 7042-C06, which is a desktop.
B. The 7042-CR4 is limited to 16 managed systems, compared to a limit of 32 for the 7042-C06.
C. The 7042-C06 has faster CPUs and twice the RAM compared to the 7042-CR4,which is suited to large enterprise deployments.
D. The 7042-C06 can manage POWER5-based hardware, in addition to POWER6, while the 7042-CR4 can only manage POWER6-based hardware.
Answer: C
QUESTION 7
Which port must be open on the HMC to allow remote web access?
A. 22
B. 80
C. 443
D. 8080
Answer: C
QUESTION 8
Which are the two main uses of a VIO server?
A. Virtualize network and memory to LPARs.
B. Virtualize network and storage to LPARs.
C. Virtualize memory and processors to LPARs.
D. Virtualize storage and processors to LPARs.
Answer: B
QUESTION 9
What is the theoretical maximum number of logical ports that a one port of a 2-port 10Gb IVE can provide if no VIO Server is connected to the IVE?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
Answer: D
QUESTION 10
An administrator wants to deploy a complex LPAR environment on a 595. What is the most current tool available for documenting the proposed LPAR configuration and determining if there are adequate IO resources?
A. LPAR Planning Tool.
B. System Planning Tool.
C. LPAR Validation Tool.
D. System Validation Tool.
Answer: B
QUESTION 11
Where will an administrator find documents in PDFformat that include detailed architecture and step-by-step installation instructions for Power servers?
A. AIX Fix Central
B. IBM Developer Works
C. IBM Systems Software Information Center
D. IBM Systems Hardware Information Center
Answer: D
QUESTION 12
Which of the following is a situation where dual (redundant) HMCs are recommended?
A. When managing more than four VIO servers.
B. When installed with Power 570 and larger hardware.
C. When hosting both Linux and AIX on the same physical hardware.
D. When unexpected outage on a single HMC would prove an untenable risk for the hosted LPARs.
Answer: D
QUESTION 13
A customer has a requirement for a single AIX LPAR to be highly available. The customer only has enough funding to purchase a single system. Which would be the most critical option to mitigate AIX availability?
A. Dual power supplies.
B. Twice the amount of disk.
C. Two dual-port LHEA adapters.
D. Two dual-port fibre channel adapters.
Answer: A
QUESTION 14
Which command restores files from a volume group backup on a specified media?
A. mksysb -r
B. savevg -r
C. restorevg -r
D. restorevgfiles
Answer: A
QUESTION 15
A non-root user can run rsh commands from serverA to serverB, but attempts to run rsh commands by the root user return with apermission error message. What action will resolve the problem?
A. Add root user to the /etc/hosts.equiv on serverB.
B. Create $HOME/.rhosts file for the root user on serverB.
C. Restart the rshd daemon with root enabled option on serverB.
D. Add entry to allow root user from serverA to the /etc/hosts.allow on serverB.
Answer: D
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Which POWER6 virtualization technology is the minimum to enable multiple shared processor pool functionality?
A. PowerHA Standard Edition
B. PowerVM Standard Edition
C. Power6 Management Edition
D. Power6 Virtualization Edition
Answer: B
QUESTION 2
What is the minimum amount of memory required for a new LPAR to be built via NIM on AIX6.1?
A. 128 MB
B. 256 MB
C. 512 MB
D. 1024 MB
Answer: B
QUESTION 3
A recently installed package needs to be rolled back to aprevious version. Which of the following commands will perform the task?
A. reject
B. cleanup
C. deinstall
D. uninstall
Answer: A
QUESTION 4
How can a JFS2 filesystem be added to a volume groupthat has insufficient space to host a log LV?
A. Create the filesystem with an inline log.
B. Create the filesystem referring to the jfs2log in rootvg.
C. Create the filesystem and format the logical volume with 'logform'.
D. Create the filesystem's underlying logical volume with an inline log.
Answer: C
QUESTION 5
Which of the following allows multiple applications toshare a single operating system resource?
A. Logical Partition
B. Workload Partition
C. Dynamic Logical Partition
D. Shared Processor Logical Partition
Answer: B
QUESTION 6
When ordering a new IBM Power Systems server, a customer is given the option of two types of Hardware Management Console:7042-CR4 and 7042-C06.Which main difference between the options would influence the customer's decision?
A. The 7042-CR4 is a rack mounted model, compared to the 7042-C06, which is a desktop.
B. The 7042-CR4 is limited to 16 managed systems, compared to a limit of 32 for the 7042-C06.
C. The 7042-C06 has faster CPUs and twice the RAM compared to the 7042-CR4,which is suited to large enterprise deployments.
D. The 7042-C06 can manage POWER5-based hardware, in addition to POWER6, while the 7042-CR4 can only manage POWER6-based hardware.
Answer: C
QUESTION 7
Which port must be open on the HMC to allow remote web access?
A. 22
B. 80
C. 443
D. 8080
Answer: C
QUESTION 8
Which are the two main uses of a VIO server?
A. Virtualize network and memory to LPARs.
B. Virtualize network and storage to LPARs.
C. Virtualize memory and processors to LPARs.
D. Virtualize storage and processors to LPARs.
Answer: B
QUESTION 9
What is the theoretical maximum number of logical ports that a one port of a 2-port 10Gb IVE can provide if no VIO Server is connected to the IVE?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
Answer: D
QUESTION 10
An administrator wants to deploy a complex LPAR environment on a 595. What is the most current tool available for documenting the proposed LPAR configuration and determining if there are adequate IO resources?
A. LPAR Planning Tool.
B. System Planning Tool.
C. LPAR Validation Tool.
D. System Validation Tool.
Answer: B
QUESTION 11
Where will an administrator find documents in PDFformat that include detailed architecture and step-by-step installation instructions for Power servers?
A. AIX Fix Central
B. IBM Developer Works
C. IBM Systems Software Information Center
D. IBM Systems Hardware Information Center
Answer: D
QUESTION 12
Which of the following is a situation where dual (redundant) HMCs are recommended?
A. When managing more than four VIO servers.
B. When installed with Power 570 and larger hardware.
C. When hosting both Linux and AIX on the same physical hardware.
D. When unexpected outage on a single HMC would prove an untenable risk for the hosted LPARs.
Answer: D
QUESTION 13
A customer has a requirement for a single AIX LPAR to be highly available. The customer only has enough funding to purchase a single system. Which would be the most critical option to mitigate AIX availability?
A. Dual power supplies.
B. Twice the amount of disk.
C. Two dual-port LHEA adapters.
D. Two dual-port fibre channel adapters.
Answer: A
QUESTION 14
Which command restores files from a volume group backup on a specified media?
A. mksysb -r
B. savevg -r
C. restorevg -r
D. restorevgfiles
Answer: A
QUESTION 15
A non-root user can run rsh commands from serverA to serverB, but attempts to run rsh commands by the root user return with apermission error message. What action will resolve the problem?
A. Add root user to the /etc/hosts.equiv on serverB.
B. Create $HOME/.rhosts file for the root user on serverB.
C. Restart the rshd daemon with root enabled option on serverB.
D. Add entry to allow root user from serverA to the /etc/hosts.allow on serverB.
Answer: D
If you want to pass the IBM C2010-040 Exam sucessfully, recommend to read latest IBM C2010-040 Demo full version.
![]() |
| IBM C2010-040 DEMO |
Official 2014 Latest IBM C2010-023 DEMO Free Download!
QUESTION 1
Which two resources are available on the IBM developerWorks website? (Choose two.)
A. Latest test fixes released by development.
B. Software licenses for proof of concept installs.
C. Web-based community forums and Wiki pages.
D. List of new features still under development for each product.
E. Technical tutorials and demos for developers and administrators.
Answer: CE
QUESTION 2
Which Maintenance Delivery Vehicles (MDVs) provides a cumulative, fully supported and formally tested software maintenance package of APAR fixes?
A. FITS
B. Test Fix
C. Fix Pack
D. Limited Availability Interim Fix
Answer: C
QUESTION 3
IBM Software Support Feeds allow one to stay up-to-date with the latest content created for specific IBM Software products. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. feeds can include IBM stock prices
B. feeds can be filtered using keywords
C. feeds are updated several times a day
D. feeds are delivered using IBM proprietary standards
E. feeds may be customized to include PMR information
Answer: BC
QUESTION 4
What is Assist On-Site?
A. An IBM education program used to create and deliver client customized training.
B. An IBM dedicated resource who resides at the client's site to advise on technical issues.
C. An IBM web based technology used to troubleshoot by viewing or controlling a remote system.
D. An IBM team of support engineers that travel to customer locations to resolve critical problems.
Answer: C
QUESTION 5
To access ESR/SR and open a PMR on behalf of an end user, what are two requirements? (Choose two)
A. approval from the End User
B. the customer's Telephone number
C. the customer's contact name and address
D. to be registered with IBM and have a login ID
E. to be setup as an Authorized User or a Site Technical Contact
Answer: DE
QUESTION 6
Which two statements are true of Interim Fix (IF) Maintenance Delivery Vehicles? (Choose two.)
A. Interim Fixes are formally tested and fully supported by IBM.
B. Interim Fixes are uncertified fixes that may be used for testing only.
C. Interim Fixes are installable packages which include one or more APAR fixes.
D. Interim Fixes are not published on the IBM website and must be requested from support.
E. Interim Fixes do not contain any documentation, Readme files or installation instructions.
Answer: AC
QUESTION 7
Based upon user feedback of the IBM Support Assistant tool, what increased resolution time have they observed?
A. 2%
B. 5%
C. 10%
D. 15%
Answer: C
If you want to pass the IBM C2010-023 Exam sucessfully, recommend to read latest IBM C2010-023 DEMO full version.
Which two resources are available on the IBM developerWorks website? (Choose two.)
A. Latest test fixes released by development.
B. Software licenses for proof of concept installs.
C. Web-based community forums and Wiki pages.
D. List of new features still under development for each product.
E. Technical tutorials and demos for developers and administrators.
Answer: CE
QUESTION 2
Which Maintenance Delivery Vehicles (MDVs) provides a cumulative, fully supported and formally tested software maintenance package of APAR fixes?
A. FITS
B. Test Fix
C. Fix Pack
D. Limited Availability Interim Fix
Answer: C
QUESTION 3
IBM Software Support Feeds allow one to stay up-to-date with the latest content created for specific IBM Software products. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. feeds can include IBM stock prices
B. feeds can be filtered using keywords
C. feeds are updated several times a day
D. feeds are delivered using IBM proprietary standards
E. feeds may be customized to include PMR information
Answer: BC
QUESTION 4
What is Assist On-Site?
A. An IBM education program used to create and deliver client customized training.
B. An IBM dedicated resource who resides at the client's site to advise on technical issues.
C. An IBM web based technology used to troubleshoot by viewing or controlling a remote system.
D. An IBM team of support engineers that travel to customer locations to resolve critical problems.
Answer: C
QUESTION 5
To access ESR/SR and open a PMR on behalf of an end user, what are two requirements? (Choose two)
A. approval from the End User
B. the customer's Telephone number
C. the customer's contact name and address
D. to be registered with IBM and have a login ID
E. to be setup as an Authorized User or a Site Technical Contact
Answer: DE
QUESTION 6
Which two statements are true of Interim Fix (IF) Maintenance Delivery Vehicles? (Choose two.)
A. Interim Fixes are formally tested and fully supported by IBM.
B. Interim Fixes are uncertified fixes that may be used for testing only.
C. Interim Fixes are installable packages which include one or more APAR fixes.
D. Interim Fixes are not published on the IBM website and must be requested from support.
E. Interim Fixes do not contain any documentation, Readme files or installation instructions.
Answer: AC
QUESTION 7
Based upon user feedback of the IBM Support Assistant tool, what increased resolution time have they observed?
A. 2%
B. 5%
C. 10%
D. 15%
Answer: C
If you want to pass the IBM C2010-023 Exam sucessfully, recommend to read latest IBM C2010-023 DEMO full version.
![]() |
| IBM C2010-023 DEMO |
Official 2014 Latest IBM C2010-005 DEMO Free Download!
QUESTION 1
Which two statements describe Maximo Locations? (choose two)
A. Maximo Locations can be readily created, modified, or deleted.
B. Maximo Locations define places where assets are operated or stored.
C. Maximo Locations define places where a company expends resources and tracks costs.
D. Maximo Locations are restrlcted to entities having physical and geo-spatial boundaries.
E. Maximo Locations must contain a physical index like a postal address, a room number, or a plant
section ID .
Answer: BC
QUESTION 2
The client has outlined in the discovery phase of the project that they want to incorporate there divisions. And each has a different chart of accounts with the same GL Account Configuration. From this information, how many organization(s) should be created for the solution is required to be decided. How many organization(s) should be created?
A. one
B. two
C. four
D. three
Answer: D
QUESTION 3
What are two examples of Linear Assets? (choose two)
A. Gas pipelines
B. University Campus
C. Poultry processing Plants
D. Water Treatment Holding Ponds
E. Electrical Power Distribution Lines
Answer: AE
QUESTION 4
What are the standard location types in IBM Maximo Asset Management V7.1?
A. Operating, Holding, Vendor, Shop, and Labor
B. Storeroom, Courier, Work, Salvage, and Holding
C. Storeroom, Operating, Work, Salvage, and Labor
D. Operating, Storeroom, Vendor, Holding, and Repair
Answer: D
QUESTION 5
At which data level do Contracts, Labor, and Chart of Accounts reside?
A. Set
B. Site
C. System
D. Organization
Answer: D
QUESTION 6
The customer's legacy system has no functionality to create custom integrations. Which two options are available to migrate data from a legacy system to an IBM Maximo Asset Management V7.1 (MAM) environment? (choose two)
A. Export data from the legacy system and import data as a database dump.
B. Directly insert extracted data from the legacy system into the MAM database, by using SQL statements.
C. Extract data from the legacy system into flat files and use the Maximo Migration Manager to migrate the
data into MAM.
D. Use the data migration option in the Maximo integration Adapter, after having extracted data from the
legacy system into the comma-separated value (CSV) files.
E. Use the data import option in the Integration Framework, after having extracted data from the legacy
system into the CSV files.
Answer: BE
QUESTION 7
What is required to create a Linear Referencing Method for a Linear Asset Record?
A. a segment
B. a feature
C. an unit of measure
D. a feature instance
Answer: C
QUESTION 8
Which three data elements are commonly interfaced to IBM Maximo Asset Management V7.1 from an external purchasing system? (choose three)
A. Calendars
B. Vendor Names
C. Organizations
D. Order Quantities
E. Person Information
F. Receipt Quantities
Answer: BDF
QUESTION 9
The client requirements outline the need for advanced tracking of process measurements such as temperature, pressure, and flow. These measurement and test equiqment requirements are termined to exceed standard IBM Maximo Asset Management capabilities. Which industry solution or add-on will provide this and other features?
A. Maximo Callbration
B. Maximo for Service Providers
C. Maximo Linear Assets
D. Maximo Instruments and Controls
Answer: A
QUESTION 10
What are the standard statuses for a Maximo Asset?
A. in service and out of service
B. hold, operating, and decommissioned
C. operating, out of service, and salvaged
D. not ready, operating, and decommissioned
Answer: D
QUESTION 11
If a customer has requirements list, when is the best time to review this list with the customer and classify the requirements?
A. at the end of the Design phase
B. as the first task of Design phase
C. during the process design workshops
D. at the beginning of the Configuration phase
Answer: B
If you want to pass the Cisco IBM C2010-005 Exam sucessfully, recommend to read latest IBM C2010-005 DEMO full version.
Which two statements describe Maximo Locations? (choose two)
A. Maximo Locations can be readily created, modified, or deleted.
B. Maximo Locations define places where assets are operated or stored.
C. Maximo Locations define places where a company expends resources and tracks costs.
D. Maximo Locations are restrlcted to entities having physical and geo-spatial boundaries.
E. Maximo Locations must contain a physical index like a postal address, a room number, or a plant
section ID .
Answer: BC
QUESTION 2
The client has outlined in the discovery phase of the project that they want to incorporate there divisions. And each has a different chart of accounts with the same GL Account Configuration. From this information, how many organization(s) should be created for the solution is required to be decided. How many organization(s) should be created?
A. one
B. two
C. four
D. three
Answer: D
QUESTION 3
What are two examples of Linear Assets? (choose two)
A. Gas pipelines
B. University Campus
C. Poultry processing Plants
D. Water Treatment Holding Ponds
E. Electrical Power Distribution Lines
Answer: AE
QUESTION 4
What are the standard location types in IBM Maximo Asset Management V7.1?
A. Operating, Holding, Vendor, Shop, and Labor
B. Storeroom, Courier, Work, Salvage, and Holding
C. Storeroom, Operating, Work, Salvage, and Labor
D. Operating, Storeroom, Vendor, Holding, and Repair
Answer: D
QUESTION 5
At which data level do Contracts, Labor, and Chart of Accounts reside?
A. Set
B. Site
C. System
D. Organization
Answer: D
QUESTION 6
The customer's legacy system has no functionality to create custom integrations. Which two options are available to migrate data from a legacy system to an IBM Maximo Asset Management V7.1 (MAM) environment? (choose two)
A. Export data from the legacy system and import data as a database dump.
B. Directly insert extracted data from the legacy system into the MAM database, by using SQL statements.
C. Extract data from the legacy system into flat files and use the Maximo Migration Manager to migrate the
data into MAM.
D. Use the data migration option in the Maximo integration Adapter, after having extracted data from the
legacy system into the comma-separated value (CSV) files.
E. Use the data import option in the Integration Framework, after having extracted data from the legacy
system into the CSV files.
Answer: BE
QUESTION 7
What is required to create a Linear Referencing Method for a Linear Asset Record?
A. a segment
B. a feature
C. an unit of measure
D. a feature instance
Answer: C
QUESTION 8
Which three data elements are commonly interfaced to IBM Maximo Asset Management V7.1 from an external purchasing system? (choose three)
A. Calendars
B. Vendor Names
C. Organizations
D. Order Quantities
E. Person Information
F. Receipt Quantities
Answer: BDF
QUESTION 9
The client requirements outline the need for advanced tracking of process measurements such as temperature, pressure, and flow. These measurement and test equiqment requirements are termined to exceed standard IBM Maximo Asset Management capabilities. Which industry solution or add-on will provide this and other features?
A. Maximo Callbration
B. Maximo for Service Providers
C. Maximo Linear Assets
D. Maximo Instruments and Controls
Answer: A
QUESTION 10
What are the standard statuses for a Maximo Asset?
A. in service and out of service
B. hold, operating, and decommissioned
C. operating, out of service, and salvaged
D. not ready, operating, and decommissioned
Answer: D
QUESTION 11
If a customer has requirements list, when is the best time to review this list with the customer and classify the requirements?
A. at the end of the Design phase
B. as the first task of Design phase
C. during the process design workshops
D. at the beginning of the Configuration phase
Answer: B
If you want to pass the Cisco IBM C2010-005 Exam sucessfully, recommend to read latest IBM C2010-005 DEMO full version.
![]() IBM C2010-005 Demo |
Wednesday, April 23, 2014
2014 Latest Cisco 200-101 Dump Free Download(91-97)!
QUESTION 91
What authentication type is used by SNMPv2?
A. HMAC-MD5
B. HMAC-SHA
C. CBC-DES
D. community strings
Answer: D
QUESTION 92
Which three statements about the features of SNMPv2 and SNMPv3 are true? (Choose three.)
A. SNMPv3 enhanced SNMPv2 security features.
B. SNMPv3 added the Inform protocol message to SNMP.
C. SNMPv2 added the Inform protocol message to SNMP.
D. SNMPv3 added the GetBulk protocol messages to SNMP.
E. SNMPv2 added the GetBulk protocol message to SNMP.
F. SNMPv2 added the GetNext protocol message to SNMP.
Answer: ACE
QUESTION 93
What Cisco IOS feature can be enabled to pinpoint an application that is causing slow network performance?
A. SNMP
B. Netflow
C. WCCP
D. IP SLA
Answer: B
QUESTION 94
In a GLBP network, who is responsible for the arp request?
A. AVF
B. AVG
C. Active Router
D. Standby Router
Answer: B
QUESTION 95
In GLBP, which router will respond to client ARP requests?
A. The active virtual gateway will reply with one of four possible virtual MAC addresses.
B. All GLBP member routers will reply in round-robin fashion.
C. The active virtual gateway will reply with its own hardware MAC address.
D. The GLBP member routers will reply with one of four possible burned in hardware addresses.
Answer: A
QUESTION 96
Which three statements about HSRP operation are true? (Choose three.)
A. The virtual IP address and virtual MA+K44C address are active on the HSRP Master router.
B. The HSRP default timers are a 3 second hello interval and a 10 second dead interval.
C. HSRP supports only clear-text authentication.
D. The HSRP virtual IP address must be on a different subnet than the routers' interfaces on the same LAN.
E. The HSRP virtual IP address must be the same as one of the router's interface addresses on the LAN.
F. HSRP supports up to 255 groups per interface, enabling an administrative form of load balancing.
Answer: ABF
QUESTION 97
What is a valid HSRP virtual MAC address?
A. 0000.5E00.01A3
B. 0007.B400.AE01
C. 0000.0C07.AC15
D. 0007.5E00.B301
Answer: C
What authentication type is used by SNMPv2?
A. HMAC-MD5
B. HMAC-SHA
C. CBC-DES
D. community strings
Answer: D
QUESTION 92
Which three statements about the features of SNMPv2 and SNMPv3 are true? (Choose three.)
A. SNMPv3 enhanced SNMPv2 security features.
B. SNMPv3 added the Inform protocol message to SNMP.
C. SNMPv2 added the Inform protocol message to SNMP.
D. SNMPv3 added the GetBulk protocol messages to SNMP.
E. SNMPv2 added the GetBulk protocol message to SNMP.
F. SNMPv2 added the GetNext protocol message to SNMP.
Answer: ACE
QUESTION 93
What Cisco IOS feature can be enabled to pinpoint an application that is causing slow network performance?
A. SNMP
B. Netflow
C. WCCP
D. IP SLA
Answer: B
QUESTION 94
In a GLBP network, who is responsible for the arp request?
A. AVF
B. AVG
C. Active Router
D. Standby Router
Answer: B
QUESTION 95
In GLBP, which router will respond to client ARP requests?
A. The active virtual gateway will reply with one of four possible virtual MAC addresses.
B. All GLBP member routers will reply in round-robin fashion.
C. The active virtual gateway will reply with its own hardware MAC address.
D. The GLBP member routers will reply with one of four possible burned in hardware addresses.
Answer: A
QUESTION 96
Which three statements about HSRP operation are true? (Choose three.)
A. The virtual IP address and virtual MA+K44C address are active on the HSRP Master router.
B. The HSRP default timers are a 3 second hello interval and a 10 second dead interval.
C. HSRP supports only clear-text authentication.
D. The HSRP virtual IP address must be on a different subnet than the routers' interfaces on the same LAN.
E. The HSRP virtual IP address must be the same as one of the router's interface addresses on the LAN.
F. HSRP supports up to 255 groups per interface, enabling an administrative form of load balancing.
Answer: ABF
QUESTION 97
What is a valid HSRP virtual MAC address?
A. 0000.5E00.01A3
B. 0007.B400.AE01
C. 0000.0C07.AC15
D. 0007.5E00.B301
Answer: C
2014 Latest Cisco 200-101 Dump Free Download(81-90)!
QUESTION 81
Syslog was configured with a level 3 trap. Which 3 types of logs would be generated (choose three)
A. Emergencies
B. Alerts
C. Critical
D. Errors
E. Warnings
Answer: ABC
QUESTION 82
Which three statements about Syslog utilization are true? (Choose three.)
A. Utilizing Syslog improves network performance.
B. The Syslog server automatically notifies the network administrator of network problems.
C. A Syslog server provides the storage space necessary to store log files without using router disk space.
D. There are more Syslog messages available within Cisco IOS than there are comparable SNMP trap messages.
E. Enabling Syslog on a router automatically enables NTP for accurate time stamping.
F. A Syslog server helps in aggregation of logs and alerts.
Answer: CDF
QUESTION 83
A network administrator enters the following command on a router: logging trap 3. What are three message types that will be sent to the Syslog server? (Choose three.)
A. informational
B. emergency
C. warning
D. critical
E. debug
F. error
Answer: BDF
QUESTION 84
What is the default Syslog facility level?
A. local4
B. local5
C. local6
D. local7
Answer: D
QUESTION 85
What command instructs the device to timestamp Syslog debug messages in milliseconds?
A. service timestamps log datetime localtime
B. service timestamps debug datetime msec
C. service timestamps debug datetime localtime
D. service timestamps log datetime msec
Answer: B
QUESTION 86
Which protocol can cause overload on a CPU of a managed device?
A. Netflow
B. WCCP
C. IP SLA
D. SNMP
Answer: D
QUESTION 87
What is the alert message generated by SNMP agents called ?
A. TRAP
B. INFORM
C. GET
D. SET
Answer: AB
QUESTION 88
Which three features are added in SNMPv3 over SNMPv2?
A. Message Integrity
B. Compression
C. Authentication
D. Encryption
E. Error Detection
Answer: ACD
QUESTION 89
What are three components that comprise the SNMP framework? (Choose three.)
A. MIB
B. agent
C. set
D. AES
E. supervisor
F. manager
Answer: ABF
QUESTION 90
What SNMP message alerts the manager to a condition on the network?
A. response
B. get
C. trap
D. capture
Answer: C
Syslog was configured with a level 3 trap. Which 3 types of logs would be generated (choose three)
A. Emergencies
B. Alerts
C. Critical
D. Errors
E. Warnings
Answer: ABC
QUESTION 82
Which three statements about Syslog utilization are true? (Choose three.)
A. Utilizing Syslog improves network performance.
B. The Syslog server automatically notifies the network administrator of network problems.
C. A Syslog server provides the storage space necessary to store log files without using router disk space.
D. There are more Syslog messages available within Cisco IOS than there are comparable SNMP trap messages.
E. Enabling Syslog on a router automatically enables NTP for accurate time stamping.
F. A Syslog server helps in aggregation of logs and alerts.
Answer: CDF
QUESTION 83
A network administrator enters the following command on a router: logging trap 3. What are three message types that will be sent to the Syslog server? (Choose three.)
A. informational
B. emergency
C. warning
D. critical
E. debug
F. error
Answer: BDF
QUESTION 84
What is the default Syslog facility level?
A. local4
B. local5
C. local6
D. local7
Answer: D
QUESTION 85
What command instructs the device to timestamp Syslog debug messages in milliseconds?
A. service timestamps log datetime localtime
B. service timestamps debug datetime msec
C. service timestamps debug datetime localtime
D. service timestamps log datetime msec
Answer: B
QUESTION 86
Which protocol can cause overload on a CPU of a managed device?
A. Netflow
B. WCCP
C. IP SLA
D. SNMP
Answer: D
QUESTION 87
What is the alert message generated by SNMP agents called ?
A. TRAP
B. INFORM
C. GET
D. SET
Answer: AB
QUESTION 88
Which three features are added in SNMPv3 over SNMPv2?
A. Message Integrity
B. Compression
C. Authentication
D. Encryption
E. Error Detection
Answer: ACD
QUESTION 89
What are three components that comprise the SNMP framework? (Choose three.)
A. MIB
B. agent
C. set
D. AES
E. supervisor
F. manager
Answer: ABF
QUESTION 90
What SNMP message alerts the manager to a condition on the network?
A. response
B. get
C. trap
D. capture
Answer: C
2014 Latest Cisco 200-101 Dump Free Download(71-80)!
QUESTION 71
What are two enhancements that OSPFv3 supports over OSPFv2? (Choose two.)
A. It requires the use of ARP.
B. It can support multiple IPv6 subnets on a single link.
C. It supports up to 2 instances of OSPFv3 over a common link.
D. It routes over links rather than over networks.
Answer: BD
QUESTION 72
What Netflow component can be applied to an interface to track IPv4 traffic?
A. flow monitor
B. flow record
C. flow sampler
D. flow exporter
Answer: A
QUESTION 73
What are three benefits of GLBP? (Choose three.)
A. GLBP supports up to eight virtual forwarders per GLBP group.
B. GLBP supports clear text and MD5 password authentication between GLBP group members.
C. GLBP is an open source standardized protocol that can be used with multiple vendors.
D. GLBP supports up to 1024 virtual routers.
E. GLBP can load share traffic across a maximum of four routers.
F. GLBP elects two AVGs and two standby AVGs for redundancy.
Answer: BDE
QUESTION 74
What command visualizes the general NetFlow data on the command line?
A. show ip flow export
B. show ip flow top-talkers
C. show ip cache flow
D. show mls sampling
E. show mls netflow ip
Answer: C
QUESTION 75
What are three reasons to collect Netflow data on a company network? (Choose three.)
A. To identify applications causing congestion.
B. To authorize user network access.
C. To report and alert link up / down instances.
D. To diagnose slow network performance, bandwidth hogs, and bandwidth utilization.
E. To detect suboptimal routing in the network.
F. To confirm the appropriate amount of bandwidth that has been allocated to each Class of Service.
Answer: ADF
QUESTION 76
What are three factors a network administrator must consider before implementing Netflow in the network? (Choose three.)
A. CPU utilization
B. where Netflow data will be sent
C. number of devices exporting Netflow data
D. port availability
E. SNMP version
F. WAN encapsulation
Answer: ABC
QUESTION 77
What are the benefit of using Netflow? (Choose three.)
A. Network, Application & User Monitoring
B. Network Planning
C. Security Analysis
D. Accounting/Billing
Answer: ACD
QUESTION 78
What are the three things that the Netflow uses to consider the traffic to be in a same flow?
A. IP address
B. Interface name
C. Port numbers
D. L3 protocol type
E. MAC address
Answer: ACD
QUESTION 79
Which three are the components of SNMP? (Choose three)
A. MIB
B. SNMP Manager
C. SysLog Server
D. SNMP Agent
E. Set
Answer: ABD
QUESTION 80
What are the Popular destinations for syslog messages to be saved?
A. Flash
B. The logging buffer .RAM
C. The console terminal
D. Other terminals
E. Syslog server
Answer: BCE
What are two enhancements that OSPFv3 supports over OSPFv2? (Choose two.)
A. It requires the use of ARP.
B. It can support multiple IPv6 subnets on a single link.
C. It supports up to 2 instances of OSPFv3 over a common link.
D. It routes over links rather than over networks.
Answer: BD
QUESTION 72
What Netflow component can be applied to an interface to track IPv4 traffic?
A. flow monitor
B. flow record
C. flow sampler
D. flow exporter
Answer: A
QUESTION 73
What are three benefits of GLBP? (Choose three.)
A. GLBP supports up to eight virtual forwarders per GLBP group.
B. GLBP supports clear text and MD5 password authentication between GLBP group members.
C. GLBP is an open source standardized protocol that can be used with multiple vendors.
D. GLBP supports up to 1024 virtual routers.
E. GLBP can load share traffic across a maximum of four routers.
F. GLBP elects two AVGs and two standby AVGs for redundancy.
Answer: BDE
QUESTION 74
What command visualizes the general NetFlow data on the command line?
A. show ip flow export
B. show ip flow top-talkers
C. show ip cache flow
D. show mls sampling
E. show mls netflow ip
Answer: C
QUESTION 75
What are three reasons to collect Netflow data on a company network? (Choose three.)
A. To identify applications causing congestion.
B. To authorize user network access.
C. To report and alert link up / down instances.
D. To diagnose slow network performance, bandwidth hogs, and bandwidth utilization.
E. To detect suboptimal routing in the network.
F. To confirm the appropriate amount of bandwidth that has been allocated to each Class of Service.
Answer: ADF
QUESTION 76
What are three factors a network administrator must consider before implementing Netflow in the network? (Choose three.)
A. CPU utilization
B. where Netflow data will be sent
C. number of devices exporting Netflow data
D. port availability
E. SNMP version
F. WAN encapsulation
Answer: ABC
QUESTION 77
What are the benefit of using Netflow? (Choose three.)
A. Network, Application & User Monitoring
B. Network Planning
C. Security Analysis
D. Accounting/Billing
Answer: ACD
QUESTION 78
What are the three things that the Netflow uses to consider the traffic to be in a same flow?
A. IP address
B. Interface name
C. Port numbers
D. L3 protocol type
E. MAC address
Answer: ACD
QUESTION 79
Which three are the components of SNMP? (Choose three)
A. MIB
B. SNMP Manager
C. SysLog Server
D. SNMP Agent
E. Set
Answer: ABD
QUESTION 80
What are the Popular destinations for syslog messages to be saved?
A. Flash
B. The logging buffer .RAM
C. The console terminal
D. Other terminals
E. Syslog server
Answer: BCE
2014 Latest Cisco 200-101 Dump Free Download(61-70)!
QUESTION 61
Hotspot Question

If required, what password should be configured on the DeepSouth router in the branch office to allow a connection to be established with the MidEast router?
A. No password is required.
B. Enable
C. Secret
D. Telnet
E. Console
Answer: B
Explanation:
In the diagram, DeepSouth is connected to Dubai's S1/2 interface and is configured as follows:
Interface Serial1/2
IP address 192.168.0.5 255.255.255.252
Encapsulalation PPP ; Encapsulation for this interface is PPP
Check out the following Cisco Link:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk713/tk507/technologies_configuration_example09186a00800 94333.shtml#configuringausernamedifferentfromtheroutersname
Here is a snipit of an example:
Network Diagram
If Router 1 initiates a call to Router 2, Router 2 would challenge Router 1, but Router 1 would not challenge Router 2. This occurs because the ppp authentication chap callin command is configured on Router 1. This is an example of a unidirectional authentication. In this setup, the ppp chap hostname alias-r1 command is configured on Router 1. Router 1 uses "alias-r1" as its hostname for CHAP authentication instead of "r1." The Router 2 dialer map name should match Router 1's ppp chap hostname; otherwise, two B channels are established, one for each direction.
QUESTION 62
Hotspot Question
What would be the destination Layer 2 address in the frame header for a frame that is being forwarded by Dubai to the host address of 172.30.4.4?
A. 825
B. 230
C. 694
D. 387
Answer: C
Explanation:
According to command output 172.30.4.4 is using the 694 dlci value. http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/12_2/wan/command/reference/wrffr4.html#wp1029343
QUESTION 63
Hotspot Question
Which connection uses the default encapsulation for serial interfaces on Cisco routers?
A. The serial connection to the NorthCoast branch office.
B. The serial connection to the North branch office.
C. The serial connection to the Southlands branch office.
D. The serial connection to the Multinational Core.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Cisco default encapsulation is HDLC which is by default enabled on all cisco router. If we want to enable other encapsulation protocol(PPP,X.25 etc) we need to define in interface setting. But here except s1/1 all interface defined by other encapsulation protocol so we will assume default encapsulation running on s1/1 interface and s1/1 interface connected with North
QUESTION 64
Hotspot Question
A static map to the S-AMER location is required. Which command should be used to create this map?
A. frame-relay map ip 172.30.0.3 825 broadcast
B. frame-relay map ip 172.30.0.3 230 broadcast
C. frame-relay map ip 172.30.0.3 694 broadcast
D. frame-relay map ip 172.30.0.3 387 broadcast
Answer: B
Explanation:
frame-relay map ip 172.30.0.3 230 broadcast 172.30.0.3 is S-AMER router ip address and its configure on 230 dlci value. Check "show frame-relay map " output in the diagram.
QUESTION 65
Which command displays the CHAP authentication process as it occurs between two routers?
A. debug chap authentication
B. debug authentication
C. debug chap ppp
D. debug ppp authentication
Answer: D
QUESTION 66
A department decides to replace its hub with a Catalyst 2950 switch that is no longer needed by another department. To prepare the switch for installation, the network administrator has erased the startup configuration and reloaded the switch. However, PCs that are connected to the switch experience various connectivity problems. What is a possible cause of the problem?
A. The VLAN database was not erased.
B. The management VLAN is disabled.
C. The running configuration should have been erased.
D. The "mode" button was not pressed when the switch was reloaded.
E. The switch was not configured with an IP address or a default gateway.
Answer: A
QUESTION 67
What are three features of the IPv6 protocol? (Choose three.)
A. optional IPsec
B. autoconfiguration
C. no broadcasts
D. complicated header
E. plug-and-play
F. checksums
Answer: BCE
QUESTION 68
A router has two Fast Ethernet interfaces and needs to connect to four VLANs in the local network. How can you accomplish this task, using the fewest physical interfaces and without decreasing network performance?
A. Use a hub to connect the four VLANS with a Fast Ethernet interface on the router.
B. Add a second router to handle the VLAN traffic.
C. Add two more Fast Ethernet interfaces.
D. Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration.
Answer: D
QUESTION 69
Select the action that results from executing these commands.
Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security
Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
A. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the startup-configuration file.
B. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the running-configuration file.
C. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the VLAN database.
D. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the startup-configuration file if frames from that
address are received.
E. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the running-configuration file if frames from that
address are received.
Answer: B
QUESTION 70
Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address representation? (Choose two.)
A. There are four types of IPv6 addresses: unicast, multicast, anycast, and broadcast.
B. A single interface may be assigned multiple IPv6 addresses of any type.
C. Every IPv6 interface contains at least one loopback address.
D. The first 64 bits represent the dynamically created interface ID.
E. Leading zeros in an IPv6 16 bit hexadecimal field are mandatory.
Answer: BC
Hotspot Question

If required, what password should be configured on the DeepSouth router in the branch office to allow a connection to be established with the MidEast router?
A. No password is required.
B. Enable
C. Secret
D. Telnet
E. Console
Answer: B
Explanation:
In the diagram, DeepSouth is connected to Dubai's S1/2 interface and is configured as follows:
Interface Serial1/2
IP address 192.168.0.5 255.255.255.252
Encapsulalation PPP ; Encapsulation for this interface is PPP
Check out the following Cisco Link:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk713/tk507/technologies_configuration_example09186a00800 94333.shtml#configuringausernamedifferentfromtheroutersname
Here is a snipit of an example:
Network Diagram
If Router 1 initiates a call to Router 2, Router 2 would challenge Router 1, but Router 1 would not challenge Router 2. This occurs because the ppp authentication chap callin command is configured on Router 1. This is an example of a unidirectional authentication. In this setup, the ppp chap hostname alias-r1 command is configured on Router 1. Router 1 uses "alias-r1" as its hostname for CHAP authentication instead of "r1." The Router 2 dialer map name should match Router 1's ppp chap hostname; otherwise, two B channels are established, one for each direction.
QUESTION 62
Hotspot Question
What would be the destination Layer 2 address in the frame header for a frame that is being forwarded by Dubai to the host address of 172.30.4.4?
A. 825
B. 230
C. 694
D. 387
Answer: C
Explanation:
According to command output 172.30.4.4 is using the 694 dlci value. http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/12_2/wan/command/reference/wrffr4.html#wp1029343
QUESTION 63
Hotspot Question
Which connection uses the default encapsulation for serial interfaces on Cisco routers?
A. The serial connection to the NorthCoast branch office.
B. The serial connection to the North branch office.
C. The serial connection to the Southlands branch office.
D. The serial connection to the Multinational Core.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Cisco default encapsulation is HDLC which is by default enabled on all cisco router. If we want to enable other encapsulation protocol(PPP,X.25 etc) we need to define in interface setting. But here except s1/1 all interface defined by other encapsulation protocol so we will assume default encapsulation running on s1/1 interface and s1/1 interface connected with North
QUESTION 64
Hotspot Question
A static map to the S-AMER location is required. Which command should be used to create this map?
A. frame-relay map ip 172.30.0.3 825 broadcast
B. frame-relay map ip 172.30.0.3 230 broadcast
C. frame-relay map ip 172.30.0.3 694 broadcast
D. frame-relay map ip 172.30.0.3 387 broadcast
Answer: B
Explanation:
frame-relay map ip 172.30.0.3 230 broadcast 172.30.0.3 is S-AMER router ip address and its configure on 230 dlci value. Check "show frame-relay map " output in the diagram.
QUESTION 65
Which command displays the CHAP authentication process as it occurs between two routers?
A. debug chap authentication
B. debug authentication
C. debug chap ppp
D. debug ppp authentication
Answer: D
QUESTION 66
A department decides to replace its hub with a Catalyst 2950 switch that is no longer needed by another department. To prepare the switch for installation, the network administrator has erased the startup configuration and reloaded the switch. However, PCs that are connected to the switch experience various connectivity problems. What is a possible cause of the problem?
A. The VLAN database was not erased.
B. The management VLAN is disabled.
C. The running configuration should have been erased.
D. The "mode" button was not pressed when the switch was reloaded.
E. The switch was not configured with an IP address or a default gateway.
Answer: A
QUESTION 67
What are three features of the IPv6 protocol? (Choose three.)
A. optional IPsec
B. autoconfiguration
C. no broadcasts
D. complicated header
E. plug-and-play
F. checksums
Answer: BCE
QUESTION 68
A router has two Fast Ethernet interfaces and needs to connect to four VLANs in the local network. How can you accomplish this task, using the fewest physical interfaces and without decreasing network performance?
A. Use a hub to connect the four VLANS with a Fast Ethernet interface on the router.
B. Add a second router to handle the VLAN traffic.
C. Add two more Fast Ethernet interfaces.
D. Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration.
Answer: D
QUESTION 69
Select the action that results from executing these commands.
Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security
Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
A. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the startup-configuration file.
B. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the running-configuration file.
C. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the VLAN database.
D. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the startup-configuration file if frames from that
address are received.
E. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the running-configuration file if frames from that
address are received.
Answer: B
QUESTION 70
Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address representation? (Choose two.)
A. There are four types of IPv6 addresses: unicast, multicast, anycast, and broadcast.
B. A single interface may be assigned multiple IPv6 addresses of any type.
C. Every IPv6 interface contains at least one loopback address.
D. The first 64 bits represent the dynamically created interface ID.
E. Leading zeros in an IPv6 16 bit hexadecimal field are mandatory.
Answer: BC
Tuesday, April 22, 2014
2014 Latest Cisco 200-101 Dump Free Download(51-60)!
QUESTION 81
What information does a router running a link-state protocol use to build and maintain its topological database? (Choose two.)
A. hello packets
B. SAP messages sent by other routers
C. LSAs from other routers
D. beacons received on point-to-point links
E. routing tables received from other link-state routers
F. TTL packets from designated routers
Answer: AC
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk365/technologies_white_paper09186a0080094e9e.shtml
QUESTION 82
Which commands are required to properly configure a router to run OSPF and to add network 192.168.16.0/24 to OSPF area 0? (Choose two.)
A. Router(config)# router ospf 0
B. Router(config)# router ospf 1
C. Router(config)# router ospf area 0
D. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 0
E. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
F. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 255.255.255.0 area 0
Answer: BE
Explanation:
In the router ospf
command, theranges from 1 to 65535 so o is an invalid number - B is correct but A is not correct. To configure OSPF, we need a wildcard in the "network" statement, not a subnet mask. We also need to assgin an area to this process - E is correct.
QUESTION 83
Which type of EIGRP route entry describes a feasible successor?
A. a backup route, stored in the routing table
B. a primary route, stored in the routing table
C. a backup route, stored in the topology table
D. a primary route, stored in the topology table
Answer: C
Explanation:
Feasible successor is a route whose Advertised Distance is less than the Feasible Distance of the current best path. A feasible successor is a backup route, which is not stored in the routing table but stored in the topology table.
QUESTION 84
Drag and Drop Question
Drag each description on the left to the appropriate term on the right. Not all the descriptions are used.
Answer:
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk365/technologies_white_paper09186a0080094e9e.shtml http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/12_2/iproute/command/reference/1rfospf.html
QUESTION 85
Drag and Drop Question
Drag the term on the left to its definition on the right (Not all options are used.)
Answer:
Explanation:
Poison reverse: A router learns from its neighbor that a route is down and the router sends an update back to the neighbor with an infinite metric to that routeLSA: The packets flooded when a topology change occurs, causing network routers to update their topological databases and recalculate routes
Split horizon: This prevents sending information about a routeback out the same interface that originally learned about the route holddown timer: For a given period, this causes the router to ignore any updates with poorer metrics to a lost network
QUESTION 86
Drag and Drop Question
Drat the description on the left to the routing protocol on the right. (Not all options are used.)
Answer:
QUESTION 87
Drag and Drop Question
Drat the Frame Relay acronym on the left to match its definition on the right. (Not all acronyms are used)
Answer:
Explanation:
Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) is a Cisco proprietary routing protocol, so it is vendor-specific. By default, EIGRP internal routes have an administrative distance value of 90. OSPF uses cost as its metric. By default, the cost of an interface is calculated based on bandwidth with the formula cost= 10000 0000/bandwidth (in bps). OSPF elects a DR on each broadcast and nonbroadcast multiaccess networks (like Ethernet and Frame Relay environments, respectively). It doesn't elect a DR on point-to-point link (like a serial WAN).
QUESTION 88
Hotspot Question
OSPF is configured using default classful addressing. With all routers and interfaces operational, how many networks will be in the routing table of R1 that are indicated to be learned by OSPF?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6
F. 7
Answer: C
Explanation:
It already knows about its directly connected ones, only those not directly connected
are "Learned by OSPF".
OSPF as a link state routing protocol (deals with LSAs rather than routes) does not auto summarize (doesn't support "auto-summary").So learned route by OSPF are followed 172.16.2.64/26
172.16.2.228/30
172.16.2.232/30
172.16.3.0/24
QUESTION 89
Hotspot Question
After the network has converged, what type of messaging, if any, occurs between R3 and R4?
A. No messages are exchanged.
B. Hellos are sent every 10 seconds.
C. The full database from each router is sent every 30 seconds.
D. The routing table from each router is sent every 60 seconds.
Answer: B
Explanation:
HELLO messages are used to maintain adjacent neighbors so even when the network is converged, hellos are still exchanged. On broadcast and point-to-point links, the default is 10 seconds, on NBMA the default is 30 seconds.
QUESTION 90
Hotspot Question
To allow or prevent load balancing to network 172.16.3.0/24, which of the following commands could be used in R2? (Choose two.)
A. R2(config-if)#clock rate
B. R2(config-if)#bandwidth
C. R2(config-if)#ip ospf cost
D. R2(config-if)#ip ospf priority
E. R2(config-router)#distance ospf
Answer: BC
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/12_2/iproute/command/reference/1rfospf.html#wp1018072
QUESTION 91
Hotspot Question
R1 is configured with the default configuration of OSPF. From the following list of IP addresses configured on R1, which address will the OSPF process select as the router ID?
A. 192.168.0.1
B. 172.16.1.1
C. 172.16.2.1
D. 172.16.2.225
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Router ID (RID) is an IP address used to identify the router and is chosen using the following sequence:
+ The highest IP address assigned to a loopback (logical) interface. + If a loopback interface is not defined, the highest IP address of all active router's physical interfaces will be chosen.
+ The router ID can be manually assigned
In this case, because a loopback interface is not configured so the highest active IP address 192.168.0.1 is chosen as the router ID.
What information does a router running a link-state protocol use to build and maintain its topological database? (Choose two.)
A. hello packets
B. SAP messages sent by other routers
C. LSAs from other routers
D. beacons received on point-to-point links
E. routing tables received from other link-state routers
F. TTL packets from designated routers
Answer: AC
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk365/technologies_white_paper09186a0080094e9e.shtml
QUESTION 82
Which commands are required to properly configure a router to run OSPF and to add network 192.168.16.0/24 to OSPF area 0? (Choose two.)
A. Router(config)# router ospf 0
B. Router(config)# router ospf 1
C. Router(config)# router ospf area 0
D. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 0
E. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
F. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 255.255.255.0 area 0
Answer: BE
Explanation:
In the router ospf
command, theranges from 1 to 65535 so o is an invalid number - B is correct but A is not correct. To configure OSPF, we need a wildcard in the "network" statement, not a subnet mask. We also need to assgin an area to this process - E is correct.
QUESTION 83
Which type of EIGRP route entry describes a feasible successor?
A. a backup route, stored in the routing table
B. a primary route, stored in the routing table
C. a backup route, stored in the topology table
D. a primary route, stored in the topology table
Answer: C
Explanation:
Feasible successor is a route whose Advertised Distance is less than the Feasible Distance of the current best path. A feasible successor is a backup route, which is not stored in the routing table but stored in the topology table.
QUESTION 84
Drag and Drop Question
Drag each description on the left to the appropriate term on the right. Not all the descriptions are used.
Answer:
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk365/technologies_white_paper09186a0080094e9e.shtml http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/12_2/iproute/command/reference/1rfospf.html
QUESTION 85
Drag and Drop Question
Drag the term on the left to its definition on the right (Not all options are used.)
Answer:
Explanation:
Poison reverse: A router learns from its neighbor that a route is down and the router sends an update back to the neighbor with an infinite metric to that routeLSA: The packets flooded when a topology change occurs, causing network routers to update their topological databases and recalculate routes
Split horizon: This prevents sending information about a routeback out the same interface that originally learned about the route holddown timer: For a given period, this causes the router to ignore any updates with poorer metrics to a lost network
QUESTION 86
Drag and Drop Question
Drat the description on the left to the routing protocol on the right. (Not all options are used.)
Answer:
QUESTION 87
Drag and Drop Question
Drat the Frame Relay acronym on the left to match its definition on the right. (Not all acronyms are used)
Answer:
Explanation:
Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) is a Cisco proprietary routing protocol, so it is vendor-specific. By default, EIGRP internal routes have an administrative distance value of 90. OSPF uses cost as its metric. By default, the cost of an interface is calculated based on bandwidth with the formula cost= 10000 0000/bandwidth (in bps). OSPF elects a DR on each broadcast and nonbroadcast multiaccess networks (like Ethernet and Frame Relay environments, respectively). It doesn't elect a DR on point-to-point link (like a serial WAN).
QUESTION 88
Hotspot Question
OSPF is configured using default classful addressing. With all routers and interfaces operational, how many networks will be in the routing table of R1 that are indicated to be learned by OSPF?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6
F. 7
Answer: C
Explanation:
It already knows about its directly connected ones, only those not directly connected
are "Learned by OSPF".
OSPF as a link state routing protocol (deals with LSAs rather than routes) does not auto summarize (doesn't support "auto-summary").So learned route by OSPF are followed 172.16.2.64/26
172.16.2.228/30
172.16.2.232/30
172.16.3.0/24
QUESTION 89
Hotspot Question
After the network has converged, what type of messaging, if any, occurs between R3 and R4?
A. No messages are exchanged.
B. Hellos are sent every 10 seconds.
C. The full database from each router is sent every 30 seconds.
D. The routing table from each router is sent every 60 seconds.
Answer: B
Explanation:
HELLO messages are used to maintain adjacent neighbors so even when the network is converged, hellos are still exchanged. On broadcast and point-to-point links, the default is 10 seconds, on NBMA the default is 30 seconds.
QUESTION 90
Hotspot Question
To allow or prevent load balancing to network 172.16.3.0/24, which of the following commands could be used in R2? (Choose two.)
A. R2(config-if)#clock rate
B. R2(config-if)#bandwidth
C. R2(config-if)#ip ospf cost
D. R2(config-if)#ip ospf priority
E. R2(config-router)#distance ospf
Answer: BC
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/12_2/iproute/command/reference/1rfospf.html#wp1018072
QUESTION 91
Hotspot Question
R1 is configured with the default configuration of OSPF. From the following list of IP addresses configured on R1, which address will the OSPF process select as the router ID?
A. 192.168.0.1
B. 172.16.1.1
C. 172.16.2.1
D. 172.16.2.225
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Router ID (RID) is an IP address used to identify the router and is chosen using the following sequence:
+ The highest IP address assigned to a loopback (logical) interface. + If a loopback interface is not defined, the highest IP address of all active router's physical interfaces will be chosen.
+ The router ID can be manually assigned
In this case, because a loopback interface is not configured so the highest active IP address 192.168.0.1 is chosen as the router ID.
Official 2014 Latest Cisco 200-101 Dump Free Download(41-50)!
QUESTION 41
Which PPP subprotocol negotiates authentication options?
A. NCP
B. ISDN
C. SLIP
D. LCP
E. DLCI
Answer: D
Explanation:
A protocol that establishes, configures, and tests data link connections used by the PPP Link Control Protocol offers PPP encapsulation different options, including the following:
Authentication - options includes PAP and CHAP
Compression - Data compression increases the throughput on a network link, by reducing the amount of data that must be transmitted. Error Detection -Quality and Magic numbers are used by PPP to ensure a reliable, loop-free data link.
Multilink - Supported in IOS 11.1 and later, multilink is supported on PPP links between Cisco routers. This splits the load for PPP over two or more parallel circuits and is called a bundle.
QUESTION 42
Which two statements describe the process identifier that is used in the command to configure OSPF on a router? (Choose two.)
Router(config)# router ospf 1
A. All OSPF routers in an area must have the same process ID.
B. Only one process number can be used on the same router.
C. Different process identifiers can be used to run multiple OSPF processes
D. The process number can be any number from 1 to 65,535.
E. Hello packets are sent to each neighbor to determine the processor identifier.
Answer: CD
Explanation:
we all know that The areas can be any number from 0 to 4.2 billion and 1 to 65,535 for the Process ID.
The process ID is the ID of the OSPF process to which the interface belongs. The process ID is local to the router, and two OSPF neighboring routers can have different OSPF process IDs. (This is not true of Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol [EIGRP], in which the routers need to be in the same autonomous system). Cisco IOS Software can run multiple OSPF processes on the same router, and the process ID merely distinguishes one process from the another. The process ID should be a positive integer.
QUESTION 43
Refer to the exhibit. Given the output from the show ip eigrp topology command, which router is the feasible successor?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: B
QUESTION 44
Which three of these statements regarding 802.1Q trunking are correct? (Choose three.)
A. 802.1Q native VLAN frames are untagged by default.
B. 802.1Q trunking ports can also be secure ports.
C. 802.1Q trunks can use 10 Mb/s Ethernet interfaces.
D. 802.1Q trunks require full-duplex, point-to-point connectivity.
E. 802.1Q trunks should have native VLANs that are the same at both ends.
Answer: ACE
Explanation:
To be the feasible successor, the Advertised Distance (AD) of that route must be less than the Feasible Distance (FD) of the successor. From the output of the "show ip eigrp topology 10.0.0.5 255.255.255.255 we learn that the FD of the successor is 41152000. Now we will mention about the answers, in the "Composite metric is (.../...)" statement the first parameter is the FD while the second parameter is the AD of that route. So we need to find out which route has the second parameter (AD) less than 41152000 -> only answer B satisfies this requirement with an AD of 128256.
QUESTION 45
Which two options are valid WAN connectivity methods? (Choose two.)
A. PPP
B. WAP
C. DSL
D. L2TPv3
E. Ethernet
Answer: AC
Explanation:
Explanation:
On each WAN connection, data is encapsulated into frames before itcrosses the WAN link. The following are typical WAN protocols:1. High-level Data Link Control (HDLC): The Cisco default encapsulation type onpoint-to-point connections, dedicated links, and circuit- switches connections.2. PPP: Provides router-to-router and host-to-network connections over synchronous andasynchronous circuits. PPP was designed to work with several network layer protocols,including IP.3. Frame-relay: A successor to X.25. This protocol is an industry-standard, switchesdata-link layer protocol that handles multiple virtual circuits
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wide_area_network
http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=102157&seqNum=2
QUESTION 46
What occurs on a Frame Relay network when the CIR is exceeded?
A. All TCP traffic is marked discard eligible.
B. All UDP traffic is marked discard eligible and a BECN is sent.
C. All TCP traffic is marked discard eligible and a BECN is sent.
D. All traffic exceeding the CIR is marked discard eligible.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Committed information rate (CIR): The minimum guaranteed data transfer rate agreed to by the Frame Relay switch. Frames that are sent in excess of the CIR are marked as discard eligible (DE) which means they can be dropped if the congestion occurs within the Frame Relay network.
Note: In the Frame Relay frame format, there is a bit called Discard eligible (DE) bit that is used to identify frames that are first to be dropped when the CIR is exceeded.
QUESTION 47
What are two characteristics of Frame Relay point-to-point subinterfaces? (Choose two.)
A. They create split-horizon issues.
B. They require a unique subnet within a routing domain.
C. They emulate leased lines.
D. They are ideal for full-mesh topologies.
E. They require the use of NBMA options when using OSPF.
Answer: BC
Explanation:
http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=170741&seqNum=5
QUESTION 48
Which two statements about using the CHAP authentication mechanism in a PPP link are true? (Choose two.)
A. CHAP uses a two-way handshake.
B. CHAP uses a three-way handshake.
C. CHAP authentication periodically occurs after link establishment.
D. CHAP authentication passwords are sent in plaintext.
E. CHAP authentication is performed only upon link establishment.
F. CHAP has no protection from playback attacks.
Answer: BC
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk713/tk507/technologies_tech_note09186a00800b4131.shtml
QUESTION 49
Which command allows you to verify the encapsulation type (CISCO or IETF) for a Frame Relay link?
A. show frame-relay lmi
B. show frame-relay map
C. show frame-relay pvc
D. show interfaces serial
Answer: B
Explanation:
map will show frame relay encapsulation (cisco or ietf) http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/12_2/wan/command/reference/wrffr4.html#wp1029343
QUESTION 50
What is the purpose of Inverse ARP?
A. to map a known IP address to a MAC address
B. to map a known DLCI to a MAC address
C. to map a known MAC address to an IP address
D. to map a known DLCI to an IP address
E. to map a known IP address to a SPID
F. to map a known SPID to a MAC address
Answer: D
Explanation:
Frame-Relay (a Layer 2 protocol) uses Inverse-Arp to map a know Layer 2 Address (DLCI) to a unknow Layer 3 Address.
Which PPP subprotocol negotiates authentication options?
A. NCP
B. ISDN
C. SLIP
D. LCP
E. DLCI
Answer: D
Explanation:
A protocol that establishes, configures, and tests data link connections used by the PPP Link Control Protocol offers PPP encapsulation different options, including the following:
Authentication - options includes PAP and CHAP
Compression - Data compression increases the throughput on a network link, by reducing the amount of data that must be transmitted. Error Detection -Quality and Magic numbers are used by PPP to ensure a reliable, loop-free data link.
Multilink - Supported in IOS 11.1 and later, multilink is supported on PPP links between Cisco routers. This splits the load for PPP over two or more parallel circuits and is called a bundle.
QUESTION 42
Which two statements describe the process identifier that is used in the command to configure OSPF on a router? (Choose two.)
Router(config)# router ospf 1
A. All OSPF routers in an area must have the same process ID.
B. Only one process number can be used on the same router.
C. Different process identifiers can be used to run multiple OSPF processes
D. The process number can be any number from 1 to 65,535.
E. Hello packets are sent to each neighbor to determine the processor identifier.
Answer: CD
Explanation:
we all know that The areas can be any number from 0 to 4.2 billion and 1 to 65,535 for the Process ID.
The process ID is the ID of the OSPF process to which the interface belongs. The process ID is local to the router, and two OSPF neighboring routers can have different OSPF process IDs. (This is not true of Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol [EIGRP], in which the routers need to be in the same autonomous system). Cisco IOS Software can run multiple OSPF processes on the same router, and the process ID merely distinguishes one process from the another. The process ID should be a positive integer.
QUESTION 43
Refer to the exhibit. Given the output from the show ip eigrp topology command, which router is the feasible successor?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: B
QUESTION 44
Which three of these statements regarding 802.1Q trunking are correct? (Choose three.)
A. 802.1Q native VLAN frames are untagged by default.
B. 802.1Q trunking ports can also be secure ports.
C. 802.1Q trunks can use 10 Mb/s Ethernet interfaces.
D. 802.1Q trunks require full-duplex, point-to-point connectivity.
E. 802.1Q trunks should have native VLANs that are the same at both ends.
Answer: ACE
Explanation:
To be the feasible successor, the Advertised Distance (AD) of that route must be less than the Feasible Distance (FD) of the successor. From the output of the "show ip eigrp topology 10.0.0.5 255.255.255.255 we learn that the FD of the successor is 41152000. Now we will mention about the answers, in the "Composite metric is (.../...)" statement the first parameter is the FD while the second parameter is the AD of that route. So we need to find out which route has the second parameter (AD) less than 41152000 -> only answer B satisfies this requirement with an AD of 128256.
QUESTION 45
Which two options are valid WAN connectivity methods? (Choose two.)
A. PPP
B. WAP
C. DSL
D. L2TPv3
E. Ethernet
Answer: AC
Explanation:
Explanation:
On each WAN connection, data is encapsulated into frames before itcrosses the WAN link. The following are typical WAN protocols:1. High-level Data Link Control (HDLC): The Cisco default encapsulation type onpoint-to-point connections, dedicated links, and circuit- switches connections.2. PPP: Provides router-to-router and host-to-network connections over synchronous andasynchronous circuits. PPP was designed to work with several network layer protocols,including IP.3. Frame-relay: A successor to X.25. This protocol is an industry-standard, switchesdata-link layer protocol that handles multiple virtual circuits
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wide_area_network
http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=102157&seqNum=2
QUESTION 46
What occurs on a Frame Relay network when the CIR is exceeded?
A. All TCP traffic is marked discard eligible.
B. All UDP traffic is marked discard eligible and a BECN is sent.
C. All TCP traffic is marked discard eligible and a BECN is sent.
D. All traffic exceeding the CIR is marked discard eligible.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Committed information rate (CIR): The minimum guaranteed data transfer rate agreed to by the Frame Relay switch. Frames that are sent in excess of the CIR are marked as discard eligible (DE) which means they can be dropped if the congestion occurs within the Frame Relay network.
Note: In the Frame Relay frame format, there is a bit called Discard eligible (DE) bit that is used to identify frames that are first to be dropped when the CIR is exceeded.
QUESTION 47
What are two characteristics of Frame Relay point-to-point subinterfaces? (Choose two.)
A. They create split-horizon issues.
B. They require a unique subnet within a routing domain.
C. They emulate leased lines.
D. They are ideal for full-mesh topologies.
E. They require the use of NBMA options when using OSPF.
Answer: BC
Explanation:
http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=170741&seqNum=5
QUESTION 48
Which two statements about using the CHAP authentication mechanism in a PPP link are true? (Choose two.)
A. CHAP uses a two-way handshake.
B. CHAP uses a three-way handshake.
C. CHAP authentication periodically occurs after link establishment.
D. CHAP authentication passwords are sent in plaintext.
E. CHAP authentication is performed only upon link establishment.
F. CHAP has no protection from playback attacks.
Answer: BC
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk713/tk507/technologies_tech_note09186a00800b4131.shtml
QUESTION 49
Which command allows you to verify the encapsulation type (CISCO or IETF) for a Frame Relay link?
A. show frame-relay lmi
B. show frame-relay map
C. show frame-relay pvc
D. show interfaces serial
Answer: B
Explanation:
map will show frame relay encapsulation (cisco or ietf) http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/12_2/wan/command/reference/wrffr4.html#wp1029343
QUESTION 50
What is the purpose of Inverse ARP?
A. to map a known IP address to a MAC address
B. to map a known DLCI to a MAC address
C. to map a known MAC address to an IP address
D. to map a known DLCI to an IP address
E. to map a known IP address to a SPID
F. to map a known SPID to a MAC address
Answer: D
Explanation:
Frame-Relay (a Layer 2 protocol) uses Inverse-Arp to map a know Layer 2 Address (DLCI) to a unknow Layer 3 Address.
Monday, April 21, 2014
2014 Latest Cisco 200-101 Dump Free Download(31-40)!
Hello, Everyone! The sharing time is coming, the next 10 questions and answers:)
QUESTION 31
At which layer of the OSI model does PPP perform?
A. Layer 2
B. Layer 3
C. Layer 4
D. Layer 5
Answer: A
Explanation:
Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) is a data link protocol commonly used in establishing a direct connection between two networking nodes. It can provide connection authentication, transmission encryption (using ECP, RFC 1968), and compression.
QUESTION 32
The command show frame-relay map gives the following output:
Serial 0 (up): ip 192.168.151.4 dlci 122, dynamic, broadcast, status defined, active
Which statements represent what is shown?(Choose three.)
A. 192.168.151.4 represents the IP address of the remote router
B. 192.168.151.4 represents the IP address of the local serial interface
C. DLCI 122 represents the interface of the remote serial interface
D. DLCI 122 represents the local number used to connect to the remote address
E. broadcast indicates that a dynamic routing protocol such as RIP v1 can send packets across this PVC
F. active indicates that the ARP process is working
Answer: ADE
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/12_2/wan/command/reference/wrffr4.html#wp1029343
QUESTION 33
What can be done to Frame Relay to resolve split-horizon issues?(Choose two.)
A. Disable Inverse ARP.
B. Create a full-mesh topology.
C. Develop multipoint subinterfaces.
D. Configure point-to-point subinterfaces.
E. Remove the broadcast keyword from the frame-relay map command.
Answer: BD
Explanation:
IP split horizon checking is disabled by default for Frame Relay encapsulation to allow routing updates to go in and out of the same interface. An exception is the Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) for which split horizon must be explicitly disabled. Certain protocols such as AppleTalk, transparent bridging, and Internetwork Packet Exchange (IPX) cannot be supported on partially meshed networks because they require split horizon to be enabled (a packet received on an interface cannot be transmitted over the same interface, even if the packet is received and transmitted on different virtual circuits). Configuring Frame Relay subinterfaces ensures that a single physical interface is treated as multiple virtual interfaces. This capability allows you to overcome split horizon rules so packets received on one virtual interface can be forwarded to another virtual interface, even if they are configured on the same physical interface.
QUESTION 34
What are three reasons that an organization with multiple branch offices and roaming users might implement a Cisco VPN solution instead of point-to-point WAN links? (Choose three.)
A. reduced cost
B. better throughput
C. broadband incompatibility
D. increased security
E. scalability
F. reduced latency
Answer: ADE
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/ps5743/Products_Sub_Category_Home.html#~Benefits
QUESTION 35
Which command is used to enable CHAP authentication, with PAP as the fallback method, on a serial interface?
A. Router(config-if)# ppp authentication chap fallback ppp
B. Router(config-if)# ppp authentication chap pap
C. Router(config-if)# authentication ppp chap fallback ppp
D. Router(config-if)# authentication ppp chap pap
Answer: B
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/12_2/security/configuration/guide/scfathen.html
QUESTION 36
What is the result of issuing the frame-relay map ip 192.168.1.2 202 broadcast command?
A. defines the destination IP address that is used in all broadcast packets on DCLI 202
B. defines the source IP address that is used in all broadcast packets on DCLI 202
C. defines the DLCI on which packets from the 192.168.1.2 IP address are received
D. defines the DLCI that is used for all packets that are sent to the 192.168.1.2 IP address
Answer: D
Explanation:
frame-relay map ip 192.168.1.2 202 command statically defines a mapping between a network layer address and a DLCI. The broadcast option allows multicast and broadcast packets to flow across the link.
The command frame-relay map ip 192.168.1.2 202 broadcast means to mapping the distal IP 192.168.1.2 202 to the local DLCI . When the "broadcast" keyword is included, it turns Frame Relay network as a broadcast network, which can forward broadcasts. http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/wan/command/reference/wan_f2.html#wp1012264
QUESTION 37
Which Layer 2 protocol encapsulation type supports synchronous and asynchronous circuits and has built-in security mechanisms?
A. HDLC
B. PPP
C. X.25
D. Frame Relay
Answer: B
Explanation:
High-Level Data Link Control (HDLC) - HDLC is the default encapsulation type on point-to-point, dedicated links, and circuit-switched connections. It is used typically when communicating between two Cisco devices. It is a bit-oriented synchronous data link layer protocol.
Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) - Provides router-to-router and host-to network connections over synchronous and asynchronous circuits. PPP was designed to work with several network layer protocols, such as IP, and IPX. PPP also has built in security mechanisms such as PAP and CHAP X.25/Link Access Procedure, Balanced (LAPB) - ITU-T standard that defines how connections between DTE and DCE are maintained for remote terminal access and computer communications in public data networks. X.25 specifies LAPB, a data line layer protocol. X.25 is a predecessor to Frame Relay.
Frame Relay - Industry standard, switched data link layer protocol that handles multiple virtual circuits. It is a next-generation to X.25 that is streamlined to eliminate some of the time-consuming processes (such as error correction and flow control) that were employed in X.25.
QUESTION 38
Which encapsulation type is a Frame Relay encapsulation type that is supported by Cisco routers?
A. IETF
B. ANSI Annex D
C. Q9333-A Annex A
D. HDLC
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cisco supports two Frame Relay encapsulation types: the Cisco encapsulation and the IETF Frame Relay encapsulation, which is in conformance with RFC 1490 and RFC 2427. The former is often used to connect two Cisco routers while the latter is used to connect a Cisco router to a non-Cisco router. You can test with your Cisco router when typing the command
Router(config-if)#encapsulation frame-relay ? on a WAN link.
Note: Three LMI options are supported by Cisco routers are ansi, Cisco, and Q933a. They represent the ANSI Annex D, Cisco, and ITU Q933-A (Annex A) LMI types, respectively.
HDLC is a WAN protocol same as Frame-Relay and PPP so it is not a Frame Relay encapsulation type.
QUESTION 39
The internetwork infrastructure of company XYZ consists of a single OSPF area as shown in the graphic. There is concern that a lack of router resources is impeding internetwork performance. As part of examining the router resources, the OSPF DRs need to be known. All the router OSPF priorities are at the default and the router IDs are shown with each router. Which routers are likely to have been elected as DR? (Choose two.)
A. Corp-1
B. Corp-2
C. Corp-3
D. Corp-4
E. Branch-1
F. Branch-2
Answer: DF
Explanation:
There are 2 segments on the topology above which are separated by Corp-3 router.
Each segment will have a DR so we have 2 DRs.
To select which router will become DR they will compare their router-IDs. The router with highest (best) router-ID will become DR. The router-ID is chosen in the order below:
The highest IP address assigned to a loopback (logical) interface. If a loopback interface is not defined, the highest IP address of all active router's physical interfaces will be chosen.
In this question, the IP addresses of loopback interfaces are not mentioned so we will consider IP addresses of all active router's physical interfaces. Router Corp-4 (10.1.40.40) & Branch-2 (10.2.20.20) have highest "active" IP addresses so they will become DRs.
QUESTION 40
A network administrator needs to configure a serial link between the main office and a remote location. The router at the remote office is a non-Cisco router. How should the network administrator configure the serial interface of the main office router to make the connection?
A. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)# no shut
B. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
Main(config-if)# no shut
C. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relay
Main(config-if)# authentication chap
Main(config-if)# no shut
D. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)#ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)#encapsulation ietf
Main(config-if)# no shut
Answer: B
Explanation:
Cisco High-Level Data Link Controller (HDLC) is the Cisco proprietary protocol for sending data over synchronous serial links using HDLC. So HDLC runs only in Cisco router. PPP is not proprietary protocol it's a open source every cisco router and non-cisco router understand the PPP protocol.So we need to configure the PPP protocol if connection is between cisco and non-cisco router.
QUESTION 31
At which layer of the OSI model does PPP perform?
A. Layer 2
B. Layer 3
C. Layer 4
D. Layer 5
Answer: A
Explanation:
Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) is a data link protocol commonly used in establishing a direct connection between two networking nodes. It can provide connection authentication, transmission encryption (using ECP, RFC 1968), and compression.
QUESTION 32
The command show frame-relay map gives the following output:
Serial 0 (up): ip 192.168.151.4 dlci 122, dynamic, broadcast, status defined, active
Which statements represent what is shown?(Choose three.)
A. 192.168.151.4 represents the IP address of the remote router
B. 192.168.151.4 represents the IP address of the local serial interface
C. DLCI 122 represents the interface of the remote serial interface
D. DLCI 122 represents the local number used to connect to the remote address
E. broadcast indicates that a dynamic routing protocol such as RIP v1 can send packets across this PVC
F. active indicates that the ARP process is working
Answer: ADE
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/12_2/wan/command/reference/wrffr4.html#wp1029343
QUESTION 33
What can be done to Frame Relay to resolve split-horizon issues?(Choose two.)
A. Disable Inverse ARP.
B. Create a full-mesh topology.
C. Develop multipoint subinterfaces.
D. Configure point-to-point subinterfaces.
E. Remove the broadcast keyword from the frame-relay map command.
Answer: BD
Explanation:
IP split horizon checking is disabled by default for Frame Relay encapsulation to allow routing updates to go in and out of the same interface. An exception is the Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) for which split horizon must be explicitly disabled. Certain protocols such as AppleTalk, transparent bridging, and Internetwork Packet Exchange (IPX) cannot be supported on partially meshed networks because they require split horizon to be enabled (a packet received on an interface cannot be transmitted over the same interface, even if the packet is received and transmitted on different virtual circuits). Configuring Frame Relay subinterfaces ensures that a single physical interface is treated as multiple virtual interfaces. This capability allows you to overcome split horizon rules so packets received on one virtual interface can be forwarded to another virtual interface, even if they are configured on the same physical interface.
QUESTION 34
What are three reasons that an organization with multiple branch offices and roaming users might implement a Cisco VPN solution instead of point-to-point WAN links? (Choose three.)
A. reduced cost
B. better throughput
C. broadband incompatibility
D. increased security
E. scalability
F. reduced latency
Answer: ADE
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/ps5743/Products_Sub_Category_Home.html#~Benefits
QUESTION 35
Which command is used to enable CHAP authentication, with PAP as the fallback method, on a serial interface?
A. Router(config-if)# ppp authentication chap fallback ppp
B. Router(config-if)# ppp authentication chap pap
C. Router(config-if)# authentication ppp chap fallback ppp
D. Router(config-if)# authentication ppp chap pap
Answer: B
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/12_2/security/configuration/guide/scfathen.html
QUESTION 36
What is the result of issuing the frame-relay map ip 192.168.1.2 202 broadcast command?
A. defines the destination IP address that is used in all broadcast packets on DCLI 202
B. defines the source IP address that is used in all broadcast packets on DCLI 202
C. defines the DLCI on which packets from the 192.168.1.2 IP address are received
D. defines the DLCI that is used for all packets that are sent to the 192.168.1.2 IP address
Answer: D
Explanation:
frame-relay map ip 192.168.1.2 202 command statically defines a mapping between a network layer address and a DLCI. The broadcast option allows multicast and broadcast packets to flow across the link.
The command frame-relay map ip 192.168.1.2 202 broadcast means to mapping the distal IP 192.168.1.2 202 to the local DLCI . When the "broadcast" keyword is included, it turns Frame Relay network as a broadcast network, which can forward broadcasts. http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/wan/command/reference/wan_f2.html#wp1012264
QUESTION 37
Which Layer 2 protocol encapsulation type supports synchronous and asynchronous circuits and has built-in security mechanisms?
A. HDLC
B. PPP
C. X.25
D. Frame Relay
Answer: B
Explanation:
High-Level Data Link Control (HDLC) - HDLC is the default encapsulation type on point-to-point, dedicated links, and circuit-switched connections. It is used typically when communicating between two Cisco devices. It is a bit-oriented synchronous data link layer protocol.
Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) - Provides router-to-router and host-to network connections over synchronous and asynchronous circuits. PPP was designed to work with several network layer protocols, such as IP, and IPX. PPP also has built in security mechanisms such as PAP and CHAP X.25/Link Access Procedure, Balanced (LAPB) - ITU-T standard that defines how connections between DTE and DCE are maintained for remote terminal access and computer communications in public data networks. X.25 specifies LAPB, a data line layer protocol. X.25 is a predecessor to Frame Relay.
Frame Relay - Industry standard, switched data link layer protocol that handles multiple virtual circuits. It is a next-generation to X.25 that is streamlined to eliminate some of the time-consuming processes (such as error correction and flow control) that were employed in X.25.
QUESTION 38
Which encapsulation type is a Frame Relay encapsulation type that is supported by Cisco routers?
A. IETF
B. ANSI Annex D
C. Q9333-A Annex A
D. HDLC
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cisco supports two Frame Relay encapsulation types: the Cisco encapsulation and the IETF Frame Relay encapsulation, which is in conformance with RFC 1490 and RFC 2427. The former is often used to connect two Cisco routers while the latter is used to connect a Cisco router to a non-Cisco router. You can test with your Cisco router when typing the command
Router(config-if)#encapsulation frame-relay ? on a WAN link.
Note: Three LMI options are supported by Cisco routers are ansi, Cisco, and Q933a. They represent the ANSI Annex D, Cisco, and ITU Q933-A (Annex A) LMI types, respectively.
HDLC is a WAN protocol same as Frame-Relay and PPP so it is not a Frame Relay encapsulation type.
QUESTION 39
The internetwork infrastructure of company XYZ consists of a single OSPF area as shown in the graphic. There is concern that a lack of router resources is impeding internetwork performance. As part of examining the router resources, the OSPF DRs need to be known. All the router OSPF priorities are at the default and the router IDs are shown with each router. Which routers are likely to have been elected as DR? (Choose two.)
A. Corp-1
B. Corp-2
C. Corp-3
D. Corp-4
E. Branch-1
F. Branch-2
Answer: DF
Explanation:
There are 2 segments on the topology above which are separated by Corp-3 router.
Each segment will have a DR so we have 2 DRs.
To select which router will become DR they will compare their router-IDs. The router with highest (best) router-ID will become DR. The router-ID is chosen in the order below:
The highest IP address assigned to a loopback (logical) interface. If a loopback interface is not defined, the highest IP address of all active router's physical interfaces will be chosen.
In this question, the IP addresses of loopback interfaces are not mentioned so we will consider IP addresses of all active router's physical interfaces. Router Corp-4 (10.1.40.40) & Branch-2 (10.2.20.20) have highest "active" IP addresses so they will become DRs.
QUESTION 40
A network administrator needs to configure a serial link between the main office and a remote location. The router at the remote office is a non-Cisco router. How should the network administrator configure the serial interface of the main office router to make the connection?
A. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)# no shut
B. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
Main(config-if)# no shut
C. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relay
Main(config-if)# authentication chap
Main(config-if)# no shut
D. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)#ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)#encapsulation ietf
Main(config-if)# no shut
Answer: B
Explanation:
Cisco High-Level Data Link Controller (HDLC) is the Cisco proprietary protocol for sending data over synchronous serial links using HDLC. So HDLC runs only in Cisco router. PPP is not proprietary protocol it's a open source every cisco router and non-cisco router understand the PPP protocol.So we need to configure the PPP protocol if connection is between cisco and non-cisco router.
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