QUESTION 31
A company has a first-generation deduplication appliance and is considering adding an HP StoreOnce 6200 Backup System to its environment. Which benefits can this company realize by deploying an HP StoreOnce 6200 Backup System? (Select two.)
A. can scale up to 784 TB of usable storage
B. federated non-disruptive data mobility between third-party systems
C. deduplicates data anywhere without the need for rehydration
D. performance throughput of 200 TB/hour
E. automatic failover on couplet failure
Answer: CE
Explanation:
The HP B6200 StoreOnce Backup System provides:
* Deduplication to drive more efficient storage of data
* Large device scalability to ensure every backup has access to devices and, so, reduce queuing time
* In-built low bandwidth replication for cost-effective copies of data offsite as part of a Disaster Recovery plan
* HP Autonomic failover (with appropriate ISV software) to allow backups to continue, even if a node in an HP B6200 StoreOnce Backup System fails.
* High scalability in terms of capacity, performance and replication to ensure the system grows as your business grows.
Incorrect:
Not A: Capacity:
48TB Raw
32TB Useable
Scalable to 192 TB Raw
128 TB Useable
Not C:
* HP StoreOnce Catalyst delivers industry-leading backup speeds of up to 100TB/hour to meet shrinking backup windows.
* Transfer rate
100 TB/hr; Maximum, depending on model
QUESTION 32
A customer needs to be able to perform an instant recovery of database data files. The recovery point is one hour to enable them to have a specified point time to restore the data if the data migration fails. Which form of data replication enables the customer to achieve this goal?
A. volume clones
B. backups to disk
C. asynchronous replication
D. snapshots
Answer: B
QUESTION 33
A customer network environment has the following components:
- HP ProLiant rack-mounted servers
- Microsoft Hyper-V virtualization
- a third-party storage system
The customer plans to implement an HP 3PAR StoreServ 7000 Storage System.
Which additional component does the customer need to install in order to implement this system?
A. SmartStart server
B. physical Service Processor
C. Windows Server 2012
D. virtual Service Processor
Answer: C
Explanation:
Setting Up a Windows Hyper-V Server/HP 3PAR StoreServ Storage Configuration Required is a Windows server with an x64-based processor running an x64 version of Windows Server 2012, Windows Server 2008 Standard, Windows Server 2008 Datacenter, Windows Server 2008 Enterprise (SP1, SP2), or Windows Server 2008 R2 Server.
Incorrect:
Not A, not B, not D: No particular parameters need to be set in the Hyper-V software to work with the HP 3PAR StoreServ Storage; no additional steps are necessary on the HP 3PAR StoreServ
Storage to work with a Windows Hyper-V server
Reference; HP 3PAR Windows Server 2012 and Windows Server 2008 Implementation Guide
QUESTION 34
A customer plans to migrate data from a third-party storage system to an HP 3PAR StoreServ 7000. They have an ISP connection between two offices. The new storage system must replicate data between the offices. What should the customer implement?
A. IP-based Remote Copy with Synchronous Replication
B. FC-based Remote Copy with Synchronous Replication
C. FC-based Remote Copy with Asynchronous Replication
D. IP-based Remote Copy with Asynchronous Replication
Answer: D
Explanation:
Reference; HP 3PAR Remote Copy 3.1.1 Software User's Guide
QUESTION 35
A customer has and HP 3PAR StoreServ 7000 that uses HP 3PAR System Reporter and Adaptive Optimization with HP 3PAR OS 3.1.1. The customer is planning an upgrade to HP 3PAR OS 3.1.2. What benefit will the customer receive after upgrading?
A. Databases are compacted each day.
B. System Reporter increases read performance
C. Data samples are retrieved every hour
D. Adaptive Optimization operations can be scheduled.
Answer: D
Explanation:
What's New in the OS
HP 3PAR OS 3.1.2 enables customers to increase multi-tenant consolidation on shared infrastructure and increase agility and efficiency with several new features and enhancements. HP 3PAR OS 3.1.2 supports the new HP 3PAR StoreServ 7000 Storage. HP 3PAR OS 3.1.2 features include the following benefits:
* Enhanced multi-tenancy and several scalability and resiliency features
* (D) Autonomic management for agility and ease of use with enhancements to Autonomic System Rebalance, Adaptive Optimization and other enhanced capabilities
* Thin Technologies for efficiency and capacity reduction with tighter integration with Windows Server 2012.
* Federated Technologies for providing online data migration with Online Import between EVA Storage and 3PAR storage.
Reference; HP 3PAR Operating System 3.1.2 GA/MU1/MU2, Release Notes
QUESTION 36
A customer needs to migrate data from a legacy storage system to an HP StoreVirtual 4000. They also need to improve their patch management policies for storage management.
How can the HP StoreVirtual 4000 enhance the patch management process for this customer? (Select two.)
A. by logging applied patch information
B. by displaying automatic patch alert notifications
C. by slipstreaming all patches for easy deployment
D. by displaying all pre-qualification failures
E. by automatically downloading and applying patches
Answer: BD
Explanation:
HP P4000 SAN Solutions - SAN/iQ software 9.5 Patch Set 02 include:
Enhanced the Online Upgrades feature to:
* (B) Display a notifications window in the CMC, which ensures you are notified of any updates to the system, such as patches, customer advisories, or updated release notes. The Notifications window displays automatically when the CMC is first opened.
* Identify the type of patch (urgent, recommended, informational) in the notifications window so you can quickly determine the importance of the patch.
* Patch availability messages on the upgrades tab, menu bar, and package selection window indicate the type of patch (urgent, recommended, optional).
* Improve download capability by fixing the limitation of concurrent FTP connections. Increasing the number of concurrent FTP connections ensures that you can obtain updates in a timely manner and avoid connectivity issues.
D: HP P4000/StoreVirtual Patch set 04 include:
Added a check to 9.0 CMC online upgrades for any existing hardware problems in a pre-9.0 storage system during the upgrade pre-qualification tests, and ensures that the hardware passes the required tests before proceeding with the upgrade. If a hardware problem is detected, the upgrade fails with an appropriate error message and can be retried after resolving the problem.
QUESTION 37
A customer plans to implement an HP B6200 Backup System.
Which benefit does mapping data types to different backup devices provide?
A. decreased installation cost
B. decreased recovery time
C. increased deduplication ratio
D. increased media utilization
Answer: C
Explanation:
Mapping the same data type to the same device improves deduplication ratios, even if it comes from multiple media servers.
Reference; HP B6200 Backup System, Recommended Configuration Guidelines
QUESTION 38
A customer's storage environment contains the following storage systems:
- HP EVA6400 with 10 TB of storage
- HP EVA4400 with 5 TB of storage
The customer uses fully provisioned volumes on the existing storage systems. They plan to migrate data to an HP 3PAR StoreServ 7000 Storage System.
What ensures that the volumes migrated from the EVA to the StoreServ 7000 are thinly
provisioned?
A. Remote Copy
B. Online Import
C. Recovery Manager
D. Peer Motion
Answer: B
Explanation:
EVA to 3PAR Online Import manages the migration of data from a source EVA storage system to a destination 3PAR storage system. Using EVA to 3PAR Online Import, you can migrate EVA virtual disks and host configuration information to a 3PAR destination storage system without changing host configurations or interrupting data access.
QUESTION 39
A company needs to migrate from their existing legacy storage system to a new multi-site cluster with Fibre Channel support and 10GbE ports. Which HP solution meets these requirements?
A. HP StoreAII 9300 IB
B. HP EVA P6500 FC/iSCSI
C. HP StoreSure 2000
D. HP StoreVirtual 4330 FC
Answer: D
Explanation:
HP StoreVirtual 4330 FC
Host interface
* 1 GbE iSCSI (4) Ports and
* 10 GbE iSCSI (2) Ports and
* 8 Gb Fibre Channel (2) Ports
QUESTION 40
A customer has several servers that use local physical storage and needs to design a solution to aggregate the storage into a single logical pool. The customer also needs to reduce complexity without investing in physical hardware. What should the customer include in the solution?
A. HP Matrix Storage Provisioning Manager
B. HP 3PAR StoreServ VSA
C. HP Virtual Connect Enterprise Manager
D. HP StoreVirtual VSA
Answer: D
Explanation:
Combine the power of HP StoreVirtual VSA with Microsoft or VMware virtualization and get much more out of your virtualized environment. Turn a set of heterogeneous and disconnected physical disk drives in your servers and storage devices into a single pool of logical storage capacity.
Incorrect:
Not C: HP Virtual Connect Enterprise Manager (VCEM) centralizes connection management and workload mobility for HP BladeSystem servers that use Virtual Connect to access LANs, SANs and converged network infrastructures. VCEM helps organizations increase productivity, respond faster to workload and configuration changes, and reduce operating costs.
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QUESTION 21
A customer needs to balance storage high availability and cost to meet various service level agreements, depending on the application requirement. Which storage methodology should the customer use?
A. storage RAID
B. storage federation
C. storage tiering
D. deduplicated storage
Answer: C
Explanation:
Tiered storage is the assignment of different categories of data to different types of storage media in order to reduce total storage cost. Categories may be based on levels of protection needed, performance requirements, frequency of use, and other considerations. Since assigning data to particular media may be an ongoing and complex activity, some vendors provide software for automatically managing the process based on a company-defined policy.
As an example of tiered storage, tier 1 data (such as mission-critical, recently accessed, or top secret files) might be stored on expensive and high-quality media such as double-parity RAIDs (redundant arrays of independent disks). Tier 2 data (such as financial, seldom-used, or classified files) might be stored on less expensive media in conventional storage area networks (SANs). As the tier number increased, cheaper media could be used. Thus, tier 3 in a 3-tier system might contain event-driven, rarely used, or unclassified files on recordable compact discs (CD-Rs) or tapes.
Incorrect:
Not B:
Much like vMotion in VMware environments, storage federation goes beyond the capabilities of storage virtualization. Storage federation from HP enables the online non-disruptive movement of storage volumes between arrays in a metro area. Unlike external storage virtualization appliances that add cost, complexity and downtime, storage federation from HP creates a persistent pool of capacity using native communication between system controllers.
QUESTION 22
A customer is planning to migrate data from an HP 3PAR F-200 to an HP 3PAR StoreServ 7000 Storage System. What should the customer use to migrate the data?
A. Peer Motion
B. Recovery Manager
C. Online Import
D. Remote Copy
Answer: A
Explanation:
HP 3PAR Peer Motion Software is the first non-disruptive, do-it-yourself data migration tool for enterprise block storage. With Peer Motion, HP 3PAR Storage System customers can load balance I/O workloads across systems at will, perform technology refresh seamlessly, cost-optimize asset lifecycle management, and lower technology refresh capital expenditure.
Unlike traditional block migration approaches, Peer Motion enables customers to migrate storage volumes between any HP 3PAR Storage Systems online, non-disruptively, and without complex planning or dependency on extra tools. Peer Motion leverages HP 3PAR Thin Built InTM technology to power the simple and rapid inline conversion of inefficient, "fat" volumes on source arrays to more efficient, higher-utilization "thin" volumes on the destination 3PAR Storage System.
Peer Motion Manager is an add-on application that orchestrates all stages of the data migration lifecycle to ensure data migration is simple and fool-proof.
QUESTION 23
A customer plans to implement an HP StoreOnce B6200 Backup System. The customer has two subnets that the backup system must utilize to communicate.
What should be used to meet these requirements?
A. DHCP for both subnets
B. DHCP for one subnet and a static IP for the other
C. a single network gateway for both subnets
D. an IP address for each subnet
Answer: C
Explanation:
The HP B6200 Backup System supports only one gateway for the whole cluster.
Reference; HP B6200 Backup System Recommended Configuration Guidelines
QUESTION 24
What are the benefits of migrating to an HP 3PAR StoreServ 7000?
A. Virtualization of homogenous storage devices
B. increased efficiency through reduced capacity requirements
C. multi-tier storage availability in hyperscale enterprise platform
D. federated non-disruptive data mobility between third-party systems
Answer: D
Explanation:
HP 3PAR StoreServ 7000 Storage is the only platform that offers the performance required to double virtual machine (VM) density on your physical servers--guaranteed. Store all of your data on a single system that supports advanced features such as storage federation and automated tiering and enables you to start small and grow without disruption.
QUESTION 25
A customer needs a grid-based storage solution that provides Fibre Channel/iSCSI mixed volumes. Which storage system should the customer implement?
A. HP StoreVirtual 4330 FC
B. HP StoreVirtual 4830 FC
C. HP StoreVirtual 4330
D. HP StoreVirtual 4130
Answer: A
Explanation:
Fibre Channel connectivity is only available onHP StoreVirtual 4330 FC Storage.
Note:
* Figure 2.HP StoreVirtual 4030 FC Storage with iSCSI and Fibre Channel connectivity
QUESTION 26
A company is planning a large client Virtualization environment featuring an HP BladeSystem with ProLiant servers, HP Virtual Connect Flex-10, and HP StoreVirtual 4800 Storage Systems. Which storage advantage does this architecture provide over competitors' client Virtualization solutions?
A. Storage traffic that enters the Virtual Connect module is prioritized automatically.
B. Storage traffic remains within the Virtual Connect domain for better Performance.
C. Each SAN provides dedicated storage for each hypervisor.
D. Each SAN is its own cluster, eliminating data segmentation across multiple clusters.
Answer: A
Explanation:
HP Virtual Connect FlexFabric interconnects pair with HP FlexFabric 10Gb 2-port onboard or mezzanine based adapters and provide FlexNIC functionality with Converged Network Adapters (CNAs) capable of either iSCSI, FCoE or native Fibre Channel storage protocols. With Virtual Connect 4.00, this flexible bandwidth capability is extended further with minimum and maximum bandwidth settings configurable from within the Virtual Connect management interface. This allows you to prioritize certain types of traffic over other types if contention occurs as well as insuring that certain networks have guaranteed bandwidth.
QUESTION 27
A customer with a Fibre Channel SAN needs to ensure that in-transit data is secure through the use of device authentication and encrypted secure key exchange.
Which Fibre Channel standard enables them to meet this goal?
A. FC-PH
B. FC-OE
C. FC-CHAP
D. FC-SP
Answer: D
Explanation:
Fibre Channel Security Protocol (FC-SP) capabilities provide switch-switch and host-switch authentication to overcome security challenges for enterprise-wide fabrics.
Incorrect:
Not B: FCoE (Fibre Channel over Ethernet) is a storage protocol that enable Fibre Channel communications to run directly over Ethernet. FCoE makes it possible to move Fibre Channel traffic across existing high-speed Ethernet infrastructure and converges storage and IP protocols onto a single cable transport and interface.
QUESTION 28
A customer is planning to maximize the capacity of a new HP 3PAR StoreServ 7400 Storage System. Including the base controller enclosures, what is the maximum number of disk enclosures that are supported?
A. 5
B. 10
C. 20
D. 26
Answer: C
Explanation:
The 7400 has two basic drive enclosures with 4 nodes an can add up to 18 additional drive enclosures, total 20. That makes sense because the maximum number of supported disk is 480 / 24= 20.
QUESTION 29
A storage administrator plans to migrate data from an HP EVA4400 to an HP 3PAR StoreServ 7000 Storage System. The administrator needs to ensure that after the upgrade, in the event of a failure, hosts can access data replicated to another HP 3PAR without disruption.
Which licensed option of the HP 3PAR StoreServ 7000 Storage System provides this capability?
A. SmartStart
B. Peer Persistence
C. Virtual Service Processor (VSP)
D. N_Port ID Virtualization (NPIV)
Answer: B
Explanation:
HP 3PAR Peer Persistence Software allows you to break the boundaries of storage, enabling your hosts, and data to move freely across data centers without impacting your business applications. It helps you in implementing a true cloud solution, where storage resources are shared across data centers, and are not constrained by their physical boundaries. Peer Persistence enables 3PAR systems located at metropolitan distances to act as peers to each other, presenting a nearly continuous storage system to hosts and servers connected to them.
This capability allows customers to configure a high-availability solution between two sites or data centers where switchover and switchback remains transparent to the hosts and applications running on those hosts. This secures business continuity without impacting performance and enables load balancing putting investments at both the data centers to optimal use.
Incorrect:
Not A:
* SmartStart assisted with Windows OS installation process and integrated and optimized HP ProLiant server support software drivers, utilities and management agents, known as ProLiant Support Packs (PSPs).
* SmartStart was a single-server deployment tool that simplified HP ProLiant G7 server (and earlier) setup, providing a repeatable way to deploy consistent configurations. It was included in the HP Insight Foundation suite for ProLiant. Insight Foundation suite and SmartStart products are end-of-life (EOL) and the last servers they ship with are ProLiant G7 servers. ProLiant Gen8 servers and beyond use Intelligent Provisioning which is initiated by pressing during the server boot (POST) process.
Not C: HP 3PAR Service Processor functions as the communication interface between the customer's IP network and HP 3PAR Central by managing all service-related communications in both directions.
Not D: N_Port ID Virtualisation (NPIV) is an industry-standard Fibre Channel (FC) protocol that provides a means to assign multiple FC addresses on the same physical link.
QUESTION 30
A customer is migrating data from a third-party storage system to an HP 3PAR StoreServ 7000 Storage System. They want the new storage system to contain 480 disk drives at minimal cost.
What should the customer use?
A. two HP 3PAR StoreServ 7200 storage systems
B. one HP 3PAR StoreServ 7400 two-node storage system
C. one HP 3PAR StoreServ 7400 four-node storage system
D. one HP 3PAR StoreServ 7200 storage system
Answer: C
Explanation:
HP 3PAR StoreServ 7400
Number of disk drives: 8-480 drives
Number of controller nodes: 2 or 4
This model offers up to 4-node architecture with up to 480 drives (SSD, SAS, NL).
Incorrect:
Not A, not D: HP 3PAR StoreServ 7200
Number of disk drives: 8-144 drives
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A customer needs to balance storage high availability and cost to meet various service level agreements, depending on the application requirement. Which storage methodology should the customer use?
A. storage RAID
B. storage federation
C. storage tiering
D. deduplicated storage
Answer: C
Explanation:
Tiered storage is the assignment of different categories of data to different types of storage media in order to reduce total storage cost. Categories may be based on levels of protection needed, performance requirements, frequency of use, and other considerations. Since assigning data to particular media may be an ongoing and complex activity, some vendors provide software for automatically managing the process based on a company-defined policy.
As an example of tiered storage, tier 1 data (such as mission-critical, recently accessed, or top secret files) might be stored on expensive and high-quality media such as double-parity RAIDs (redundant arrays of independent disks). Tier 2 data (such as financial, seldom-used, or classified files) might be stored on less expensive media in conventional storage area networks (SANs). As the tier number increased, cheaper media could be used. Thus, tier 3 in a 3-tier system might contain event-driven, rarely used, or unclassified files on recordable compact discs (CD-Rs) or tapes.
Incorrect:
Not B:
Much like vMotion in VMware environments, storage federation goes beyond the capabilities of storage virtualization. Storage federation from HP enables the online non-disruptive movement of storage volumes between arrays in a metro area. Unlike external storage virtualization appliances that add cost, complexity and downtime, storage federation from HP creates a persistent pool of capacity using native communication between system controllers.
QUESTION 22
A customer is planning to migrate data from an HP 3PAR F-200 to an HP 3PAR StoreServ 7000 Storage System. What should the customer use to migrate the data?
A. Peer Motion
B. Recovery Manager
C. Online Import
D. Remote Copy
Answer: A
Explanation:
HP 3PAR Peer Motion Software is the first non-disruptive, do-it-yourself data migration tool for enterprise block storage. With Peer Motion, HP 3PAR Storage System customers can load balance I/O workloads across systems at will, perform technology refresh seamlessly, cost-optimize asset lifecycle management, and lower technology refresh capital expenditure.
Unlike traditional block migration approaches, Peer Motion enables customers to migrate storage volumes between any HP 3PAR Storage Systems online, non-disruptively, and without complex planning or dependency on extra tools. Peer Motion leverages HP 3PAR Thin Built InTM technology to power the simple and rapid inline conversion of inefficient, "fat" volumes on source arrays to more efficient, higher-utilization "thin" volumes on the destination 3PAR Storage System.
Peer Motion Manager is an add-on application that orchestrates all stages of the data migration lifecycle to ensure data migration is simple and fool-proof.
QUESTION 23
A customer plans to implement an HP StoreOnce B6200 Backup System. The customer has two subnets that the backup system must utilize to communicate.
What should be used to meet these requirements?
A. DHCP for both subnets
B. DHCP for one subnet and a static IP for the other
C. a single network gateway for both subnets
D. an IP address for each subnet
Answer: C
Explanation:
The HP B6200 Backup System supports only one gateway for the whole cluster.
Reference; HP B6200 Backup System Recommended Configuration Guidelines
QUESTION 24
What are the benefits of migrating to an HP 3PAR StoreServ 7000?
A. Virtualization of homogenous storage devices
B. increased efficiency through reduced capacity requirements
C. multi-tier storage availability in hyperscale enterprise platform
D. federated non-disruptive data mobility between third-party systems
Answer: D
Explanation:
HP 3PAR StoreServ 7000 Storage is the only platform that offers the performance required to double virtual machine (VM) density on your physical servers--guaranteed. Store all of your data on a single system that supports advanced features such as storage federation and automated tiering and enables you to start small and grow without disruption.
QUESTION 25
A customer needs a grid-based storage solution that provides Fibre Channel/iSCSI mixed volumes. Which storage system should the customer implement?
A. HP StoreVirtual 4330 FC
B. HP StoreVirtual 4830 FC
C. HP StoreVirtual 4330
D. HP StoreVirtual 4130
Answer: A
Explanation:
Fibre Channel connectivity is only available onHP StoreVirtual 4330 FC Storage.
Note:
* Figure 2.HP StoreVirtual 4030 FC Storage with iSCSI and Fibre Channel connectivity
QUESTION 26
A company is planning a large client Virtualization environment featuring an HP BladeSystem with ProLiant servers, HP Virtual Connect Flex-10, and HP StoreVirtual 4800 Storage Systems. Which storage advantage does this architecture provide over competitors' client Virtualization solutions?
A. Storage traffic that enters the Virtual Connect module is prioritized automatically.
B. Storage traffic remains within the Virtual Connect domain for better Performance.
C. Each SAN provides dedicated storage for each hypervisor.
D. Each SAN is its own cluster, eliminating data segmentation across multiple clusters.
Answer: A
Explanation:
HP Virtual Connect FlexFabric interconnects pair with HP FlexFabric 10Gb 2-port onboard or mezzanine based adapters and provide FlexNIC functionality with Converged Network Adapters (CNAs) capable of either iSCSI, FCoE or native Fibre Channel storage protocols. With Virtual Connect 4.00, this flexible bandwidth capability is extended further with minimum and maximum bandwidth settings configurable from within the Virtual Connect management interface. This allows you to prioritize certain types of traffic over other types if contention occurs as well as insuring that certain networks have guaranteed bandwidth.
QUESTION 27
A customer with a Fibre Channel SAN needs to ensure that in-transit data is secure through the use of device authentication and encrypted secure key exchange.
Which Fibre Channel standard enables them to meet this goal?
A. FC-PH
B. FC-OE
C. FC-CHAP
D. FC-SP
Answer: D
Explanation:
Fibre Channel Security Protocol (FC-SP) capabilities provide switch-switch and host-switch authentication to overcome security challenges for enterprise-wide fabrics.
Incorrect:
Not B: FCoE (Fibre Channel over Ethernet) is a storage protocol that enable Fibre Channel communications to run directly over Ethernet. FCoE makes it possible to move Fibre Channel traffic across existing high-speed Ethernet infrastructure and converges storage and IP protocols onto a single cable transport and interface.
QUESTION 28
A customer is planning to maximize the capacity of a new HP 3PAR StoreServ 7400 Storage System. Including the base controller enclosures, what is the maximum number of disk enclosures that are supported?
A. 5
B. 10
C. 20
D. 26
Answer: C
Explanation:
The 7400 has two basic drive enclosures with 4 nodes an can add up to 18 additional drive enclosures, total 20. That makes sense because the maximum number of supported disk is 480 / 24= 20.
QUESTION 29
A storage administrator plans to migrate data from an HP EVA4400 to an HP 3PAR StoreServ 7000 Storage System. The administrator needs to ensure that after the upgrade, in the event of a failure, hosts can access data replicated to another HP 3PAR without disruption.
Which licensed option of the HP 3PAR StoreServ 7000 Storage System provides this capability?
A. SmartStart
B. Peer Persistence
C. Virtual Service Processor (VSP)
D. N_Port ID Virtualization (NPIV)
Answer: B
Explanation:
HP 3PAR Peer Persistence Software allows you to break the boundaries of storage, enabling your hosts, and data to move freely across data centers without impacting your business applications. It helps you in implementing a true cloud solution, where storage resources are shared across data centers, and are not constrained by their physical boundaries. Peer Persistence enables 3PAR systems located at metropolitan distances to act as peers to each other, presenting a nearly continuous storage system to hosts and servers connected to them.
This capability allows customers to configure a high-availability solution between two sites or data centers where switchover and switchback remains transparent to the hosts and applications running on those hosts. This secures business continuity without impacting performance and enables load balancing putting investments at both the data centers to optimal use.
Incorrect:
Not A:
* SmartStart assisted with Windows OS installation process and integrated and optimized HP ProLiant server support software drivers, utilities and management agents, known as ProLiant Support Packs (PSPs).
* SmartStart was a single-server deployment tool that simplified HP ProLiant G7 server (and earlier) setup, providing a repeatable way to deploy consistent configurations. It was included in the HP Insight Foundation suite for ProLiant. Insight Foundation suite and SmartStart products are end-of-life (EOL) and the last servers they ship with are ProLiant G7 servers. ProLiant Gen8 servers and beyond use Intelligent Provisioning which is initiated by pressing during the server boot (POST) process.
Not C: HP 3PAR Service Processor functions as the communication interface between the customer's IP network and HP 3PAR Central by managing all service-related communications in both directions.
Not D: N_Port ID Virtualisation (NPIV) is an industry-standard Fibre Channel (FC) protocol that provides a means to assign multiple FC addresses on the same physical link.
QUESTION 30
A customer is migrating data from a third-party storage system to an HP 3PAR StoreServ 7000 Storage System. They want the new storage system to contain 480 disk drives at minimal cost.
What should the customer use?
A. two HP 3PAR StoreServ 7200 storage systems
B. one HP 3PAR StoreServ 7400 two-node storage system
C. one HP 3PAR StoreServ 7400 four-node storage system
D. one HP 3PAR StoreServ 7200 storage system
Answer: C
Explanation:
HP 3PAR StoreServ 7400
Number of disk drives: 8-480 drives
Number of controller nodes: 2 or 4
This model offers up to 4-node architecture with up to 480 drives (SSD, SAS, NL).
Incorrect:
Not A, not D: HP 3PAR StoreServ 7200
Number of disk drives: 8-144 drives
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QUESTION 11
A customer has implemented an HP 3PAR StoreServ 7200 and needs to non-disruptively change the RAID characteristic of a virtual volume. The customer must also change the disk tier where the virtual volume resides. Which HP 3PAR command or software feature should the customer use to accomplish this task?
A. tunevv
B. Adaptive Optimization
C. Dynamic Optimization
D. tunesys
Answer: A
Explanation:
tunevv - Change the layout of a virtual volume.
SYNTAX
The tunevv command uses one of the following syntax conventions:
tunevv usr_cpg <cpg> [options] <VV_name>
tunevv snp_cpg <cpg> [options] <VV_name>
tunevv restart [options] <VV_name>
tunevv rollback [options] <VV_name>
SUBCOMMANDS
usr_cpg <cpg>
Moves the logical disks being used for user space to the specified CPG.
snp_cpg <cpg>
Moves the logical disks being used for snapshot space to the specified CPG.
restart
Restarts a tunevv command call that was previously interrupted because of component failure, or because of user initiated cancellation. This cannot be used on thinly provisioned virtual volumes.
rollback
Returns to a previously issued tunevv operation call that was interrupted. The canceltask command needs to run before the rollback. This cannot be used on thinly provisioned virtual volumes.
DESCRIPTION
The tunevv command is used to change the properties of a virtual volume that was created with either the createvv or createtpvv command by associating it with a different CPG.
Incorrect:
Not B: The HP 3PAR Data Optimization Software Suite v2 combines capabilities that provide autonomic storage tiering and dynamic data mobility with assured quality of service . Adaptive Optimization provides highly reliable, non-disruptive, cost-optimized storage tiering at the sub-volume level to deliver the right QoS to the right data at the right time on a large scale and Dynamic Optimization delivers it at the volume level.
Not D:
Best practice is to run Autonomic Rebalance (also known as tunesys) after adding drives.
QUESTION 12
A customer using high-speed parallel operations needs to encrypt data in 128-bit blocks with a key size of up to 256 bits. Which security standard should the customer use?
A. RC5
B. DES
C. AES
D. SHA
Answer: C
Explanation:
The key size used for an AES cipher specifies the number of repetitions of transformation rounds that convert the input, called the plaintext, into the final output, called the ciphertext. The number of cycles of repetition are as follows:
Incorrect:
Not A: RC5 has a variable block size (32, 64 or 128 bits), key size. Not B: DES is now considered to be insecure for many applications. This is chiefly due to the 56- bit key size being too small.
QUESTION 13
A flower distribution company is planning to redesign their web site and offer additional products and delivery services.
They expect a significant increase in web traffic and sales.
They want to ensure a quick response time and in some cases, provide same day delivery of an order.
This will put an increased demand on their existing IT environment. This environment consists of a small SAN, two C7000 blade chassis and a storage array
Which change to their environment is recommended?
A. upgrade to larger disks in the storage array
B. install additional disks in the storage array
C. set up replication between the storage blades and the storage array
D. install additional SAN switches
Answer: B
QUESTION 14
A customer is planning to implement an HP StoreVirtual 4330FC Storage System
Which type of cable do they need to connect the storage system to the fabric?
A. SC Fibre Channel
B. LC Fibre Channel
C. iSCSI
D. SAS
Answer: D
Explanation:
Note:
* To prevent losing access to data during any maintenance operation on components of the SAS fabric, including the SAS switches, SAS cables, and I/O modules on the disk enclosure, first power down the storage blades using the procedures to shut down the management group in the HP StoreVirtual Storage Online Help or the HP StoreVirtual Storage User Guide.
QUESTION 15
A customer uses HP 3PAK System Reporter and Adaptive Optimization with an HP 3PAR StoreServ 10000 Storage System that runs HP 3PAR OS 3.1.1. The customer is planning to upgrade the storage system to HP 3PAR OS 3.1.2. The customer needs to use System Reporter and Adaptive Optimization on the storage system after the upgrade.
Which complications will the customer encounter after performing the upgrade? (Select two)
A. System Reporter backups must be reconfigured
B. System Reporter data does not migrate
C. Adaptive Optimization is disabled
D. System Reporter databases become corrupt
E. Adaptive Optimization must be reconfigured.
Answer: BC
Explanation:
B: Recreation of the AO configuration on the nodes is a manual process. There is no automated means of transferring AO configurations from System Reporter onto the HP 3PAR OS 3.1.2 system.
C: AO behavior continues unchanged for HP 3PAR OS 3.1.1 and earlier. For HP 3PAR OS 3.1.2 systems, Adaptive Optimization behaves as follows:
* AO configurations for HP 3PAR OS systems are allowed insofar as they are not deleted following an upgrade from HP 3PAR OS 3.1.1. However, these AO configurations are not executed by regionmover and are marked as inactive.
* Following an upgrade from HP 3PAR OS 3.1.1, AO configurations remain and can be used by administrators as a reference to recreate the AO configurations on the nodes.
Reference; 3PAR System Reporter 3.1 Software Release Notes
QUESTION 16
A customer's network environment contains a third-party storage system and an HP BladeSystem with ProLiant server blades. The customer plans to migrate data to an HP StoreVirtual Storage System.
The storage system must contain at least 20 TB of raw capacity.
Which HP StoreVirtual Storage System should the customer deploy?
A. HP StoreVirtual 4630
B. HP StoreVirtual 4530
C. HP StoreVirtual 4330
D. HP StoreVirtual 4130
Answer: A
Explanation:
4630 Capacity:
Incorrect:
Not B: 4530 Capacity:
7.2TB Starting
230.4TB Maximum
QUESTION 17
A customer plans to migrate data from a third-party storage system to an HP 3PAR StoreServ 7200 Storage System.
The new storage system must provide up to 128 disk drives.
How many additional drive chassis does the customer need?
A. Three
B. Four
C. Five
D. Six
Answer: C
Explanation:
HP Product Bulletin:
The HP 3PAR StoreServ 7200 base configuration includes (2) controller nodes, 24 GB of cache, (24) small form factor drive bays, (4) built-in 8 Gb/sec FC ports, (4) 8Gb shortwave FC SFP, (2) PCIe adapter slots for host adapter cards - one slot per node, (4) 2m SAS cables, (1) mounting rail kit, and power cords.
QUESTION 18
A customer plans to migrate data from a third-party storage system to an HP StoreVirtual 4330FC Storage System. The new storage system must contain 7.2 TB of usable space after network RAID 10 and hardware RAID 10 are configured.
How many nodes does the customer need?
A. Three
B. Four
C. Six
D. Eight
Answer: B
Explanation:
Note:
* In RAID 10, often referred to as RAID 1+0 (mirroring and striping), data is written in stripes across primary disks that have been mirrored to the secondary disks.
* RAID 10: Mirroring without parity, and block-level striping
* RAID 1+0: (a.k.a. RAID 10) mirrored sets in a striped set (minimum four drives; even number of drives) provides fault tolerance and improved performance but increases complexity.
* By its definition, a Network RAID 10 volume consumes capacity at twice the rate of a Network RAID 0 volume.
QUESTION 19
Which type of deduplication method is performed by HP StoreOnce D2D devices?
A. object-level differencing
B. pre-hash data encrypting
C. metadata compressing
D. hash-based chunking
Answer: D
Explanation:
HP D2D (Disk to Disk) Backup Systems use Dynamic deduplication(hash-based chunking) technology that provides a significant price advantage over our competitors.
Note:
* HP offers two complementary deduplication technologies that meet very different customer needs:
/ Accelerated deduplication (object-level differencing) for the high-end enterprise customer who requires:
Fastest possible backup performance
Fastest restores
Most scalable solution possible in terms of performance and capacity
Multi-node low-bandwidth replication
High deduplication ratios
Wide range of replication models
/ Dynamic deduplication (hash-based chunking) for the mid size enterprise and remote office customers who require:
Lower cost device through smaller RAM footprint and optimized disk usage
A fully integrated deduplication appliance with lights-out operation
Backup application and data type independence for maximum flexibility
Wide range of replication models
Reference: Understanding the HP Data Deduplication Strategy
QUESTION 20
A customer needs to be able to recover their data in the event of a site failure. They have a strict recovery point objective for their business-critical applications.
Which technique should the customer use?
A. snapshots
B. backups to tape
C. backups to disk
D. remote replication
Answer: D
Explanation:
Need replication to get the data to a backup site.
Note:
* Recovery Point Objective (RPO) refers to the required point-in-time to which a DR solution can restore the state of data for a particular service, for example, how much data loss is acceptable following a disaster. These requirements can range from "close to zero" data loss (for high-value financial transactions, for example) to some small number of minutes of the most recent data, to loss of the past 1-2 days of data, depending on the criticality of the data to the enterprise.
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A customer has implemented an HP 3PAR StoreServ 7200 and needs to non-disruptively change the RAID characteristic of a virtual volume. The customer must also change the disk tier where the virtual volume resides. Which HP 3PAR command or software feature should the customer use to accomplish this task?
A. tunevv
B. Adaptive Optimization
C. Dynamic Optimization
D. tunesys
Answer: A
Explanation:
tunevv - Change the layout of a virtual volume.
SYNTAX
The tunevv command uses one of the following syntax conventions:
tunevv usr_cpg <cpg> [options] <VV_name>
tunevv snp_cpg <cpg> [options] <VV_name>
tunevv restart [options] <VV_name>
tunevv rollback [options] <VV_name>
SUBCOMMANDS
usr_cpg <cpg>
Moves the logical disks being used for user space to the specified CPG.
snp_cpg <cpg>
Moves the logical disks being used for snapshot space to the specified CPG.
restart
Restarts a tunevv command call that was previously interrupted because of component failure, or because of user initiated cancellation. This cannot be used on thinly provisioned virtual volumes.
rollback
Returns to a previously issued tunevv operation call that was interrupted. The canceltask command needs to run before the rollback. This cannot be used on thinly provisioned virtual volumes.
DESCRIPTION
The tunevv command is used to change the properties of a virtual volume that was created with either the createvv or createtpvv command by associating it with a different CPG.
Incorrect:
Not B: The HP 3PAR Data Optimization Software Suite v2 combines capabilities that provide autonomic storage tiering and dynamic data mobility with assured quality of service . Adaptive Optimization provides highly reliable, non-disruptive, cost-optimized storage tiering at the sub-volume level to deliver the right QoS to the right data at the right time on a large scale and Dynamic Optimization delivers it at the volume level.
Not D:
Best practice is to run Autonomic Rebalance (also known as tunesys) after adding drives.
QUESTION 12
A customer using high-speed parallel operations needs to encrypt data in 128-bit blocks with a key size of up to 256 bits. Which security standard should the customer use?
A. RC5
B. DES
C. AES
D. SHA
Answer: C
Explanation:
The key size used for an AES cipher specifies the number of repetitions of transformation rounds that convert the input, called the plaintext, into the final output, called the ciphertext. The number of cycles of repetition are as follows:
Incorrect:
Not A: RC5 has a variable block size (32, 64 or 128 bits), key size. Not B: DES is now considered to be insecure for many applications. This is chiefly due to the 56- bit key size being too small.
QUESTION 13
A flower distribution company is planning to redesign their web site and offer additional products and delivery services.
They expect a significant increase in web traffic and sales.
They want to ensure a quick response time and in some cases, provide same day delivery of an order.
This will put an increased demand on their existing IT environment. This environment consists of a small SAN, two C7000 blade chassis and a storage array
Which change to their environment is recommended?
A. upgrade to larger disks in the storage array
B. install additional disks in the storage array
C. set up replication between the storage blades and the storage array
D. install additional SAN switches
Answer: B
QUESTION 14
A customer is planning to implement an HP StoreVirtual 4330FC Storage System
Which type of cable do they need to connect the storage system to the fabric?
A. SC Fibre Channel
B. LC Fibre Channel
C. iSCSI
D. SAS
Answer: D
Explanation:
Note:
* To prevent losing access to data during any maintenance operation on components of the SAS fabric, including the SAS switches, SAS cables, and I/O modules on the disk enclosure, first power down the storage blades using the procedures to shut down the management group in the HP StoreVirtual Storage Online Help or the HP StoreVirtual Storage User Guide.
QUESTION 15
A customer uses HP 3PAK System Reporter and Adaptive Optimization with an HP 3PAR StoreServ 10000 Storage System that runs HP 3PAR OS 3.1.1. The customer is planning to upgrade the storage system to HP 3PAR OS 3.1.2. The customer needs to use System Reporter and Adaptive Optimization on the storage system after the upgrade.
Which complications will the customer encounter after performing the upgrade? (Select two)
A. System Reporter backups must be reconfigured
B. System Reporter data does not migrate
C. Adaptive Optimization is disabled
D. System Reporter databases become corrupt
E. Adaptive Optimization must be reconfigured.
Answer: BC
Explanation:
B: Recreation of the AO configuration on the nodes is a manual process. There is no automated means of transferring AO configurations from System Reporter onto the HP 3PAR OS 3.1.2 system.
C: AO behavior continues unchanged for HP 3PAR OS 3.1.1 and earlier. For HP 3PAR OS 3.1.2 systems, Adaptive Optimization behaves as follows:
* AO configurations for HP 3PAR OS systems are allowed insofar as they are not deleted following an upgrade from HP 3PAR OS 3.1.1. However, these AO configurations are not executed by regionmover and are marked as inactive.
* Following an upgrade from HP 3PAR OS 3.1.1, AO configurations remain and can be used by administrators as a reference to recreate the AO configurations on the nodes.
Reference; 3PAR System Reporter 3.1 Software Release Notes
QUESTION 16
A customer's network environment contains a third-party storage system and an HP BladeSystem with ProLiant server blades. The customer plans to migrate data to an HP StoreVirtual Storage System.
The storage system must contain at least 20 TB of raw capacity.
Which HP StoreVirtual Storage System should the customer deploy?
A. HP StoreVirtual 4630
B. HP StoreVirtual 4530
C. HP StoreVirtual 4330
D. HP StoreVirtual 4130
Answer: A
Explanation:
4630 Capacity:
Incorrect:
Not B: 4530 Capacity:
7.2TB Starting
230.4TB Maximum
QUESTION 17
A customer plans to migrate data from a third-party storage system to an HP 3PAR StoreServ 7200 Storage System.
The new storage system must provide up to 128 disk drives.
How many additional drive chassis does the customer need?
A. Three
B. Four
C. Five
D. Six
Answer: C
Explanation:
HP Product Bulletin:
The HP 3PAR StoreServ 7200 base configuration includes (2) controller nodes, 24 GB of cache, (24) small form factor drive bays, (4) built-in 8 Gb/sec FC ports, (4) 8Gb shortwave FC SFP, (2) PCIe adapter slots for host adapter cards - one slot per node, (4) 2m SAS cables, (1) mounting rail kit, and power cords.
QUESTION 18
A customer plans to migrate data from a third-party storage system to an HP StoreVirtual 4330FC Storage System. The new storage system must contain 7.2 TB of usable space after network RAID 10 and hardware RAID 10 are configured.
How many nodes does the customer need?
A. Three
B. Four
C. Six
D. Eight
Answer: B
Explanation:
Note:
* In RAID 10, often referred to as RAID 1+0 (mirroring and striping), data is written in stripes across primary disks that have been mirrored to the secondary disks.
* RAID 10: Mirroring without parity, and block-level striping
* RAID 1+0: (a.k.a. RAID 10) mirrored sets in a striped set (minimum four drives; even number of drives) provides fault tolerance and improved performance but increases complexity.
* By its definition, a Network RAID 10 volume consumes capacity at twice the rate of a Network RAID 0 volume.
QUESTION 19
Which type of deduplication method is performed by HP StoreOnce D2D devices?
A. object-level differencing
B. pre-hash data encrypting
C. metadata compressing
D. hash-based chunking
Answer: D
Explanation:
HP D2D (Disk to Disk) Backup Systems use Dynamic deduplication(hash-based chunking) technology that provides a significant price advantage over our competitors.
Note:
* HP offers two complementary deduplication technologies that meet very different customer needs:
/ Accelerated deduplication (object-level differencing) for the high-end enterprise customer who requires:
Fastest possible backup performance
Fastest restores
Most scalable solution possible in terms of performance and capacity
Multi-node low-bandwidth replication
High deduplication ratios
Wide range of replication models
/ Dynamic deduplication (hash-based chunking) for the mid size enterprise and remote office customers who require:
Lower cost device through smaller RAM footprint and optimized disk usage
A fully integrated deduplication appliance with lights-out operation
Backup application and data type independence for maximum flexibility
Wide range of replication models
Reference: Understanding the HP Data Deduplication Strategy
QUESTION 20
A customer needs to be able to recover their data in the event of a site failure. They have a strict recovery point objective for their business-critical applications.
Which technique should the customer use?
A. snapshots
B. backups to tape
C. backups to disk
D. remote replication
Answer: D
Explanation:
Need replication to get the data to a backup site.
Note:
* Recovery Point Objective (RPO) refers to the required point-in-time to which a DR solution can restore the state of data for a particular service, for example, how much data loss is acceptable following a disaster. These requirements can range from "close to zero" data loss (for high-value financial transactions, for example) to some small number of minutes of the most recent data, to loss of the past 1-2 days of data, depending on the criticality of the data to the enterprise.
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QUESTION 1
In which HP rack is the factory Integration of an HP StoreServ 7000 supported?
A. HP 5642 rack
B. HP G3 rack
C. HP 10000 rack
D. HPV142 rack
Answer: C
Explanation:
Choose Racking Options
The HP 3PAR StoreServ 7000 is compatible with most industry standard 4-post EIA 19 inch racks with square mounting holes, including
the HP Intelligent Series Rack and the HP 10000 G2 Series Rack. The HP 3PAR StoreServ 7000 can be factory configured and shipped in
a rack or shipped without a rack for field integration into an existing rack. The rack used for factory integration is the HP Intelligent
Series Rack.
QUESTION 2
You are meeting with a customer that has a small business with an unpredictable workload in a virtualized environment. Which product family from the HP array portfolio do you lead your discussion with?
A. P2000
B. P4000
C. X3000
D. P6000
Answer: A
Explanation:
* HP P2000 G3 SAS MSA
Affordable, direct attach, externalshared storage solution that provides a more efficient balance of scalability, reliability, and cost efficiency for small to midsize environments. Designed to be easytodeploy, and secure, along with low management costs while driving rapid return on investment (ROI) through efficient storage consolidation. HP MSA P2000 arrays ship standard with 64 Snapshots and Volume Copy enabled for increased data protection.
Incorrect:
Not C: HP X3000 Network Storage Systems are enhanced Windows-powered gateway and shared storage solutions for your medium business, workgroup, or datacenter environment.
QUESTION 3
A customer needs to replicate data from a remote location to an HP StoreOnce B6200 Backup.
What should the customer consider when planning the replication?
A. The HP D2D sizing tool should be used to size link speed and understand concurrency restraints.
B. Concurrency control should be used if the replication is not run at the same times as backups and
housekeeping jobs.
C. Separate replication jobs should be created for each data type.
D. Backups and housekeeping jobs should be run in the replication window.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The replication best practices that apply to HP StoreOnce D2D Backup Systems are equally as valid for the HP B6200 StoreOnce Backup System.
Best practices include:
* Use the Sizing tool to size replication link speed and understand replication concurrency restraints.
Reference: HP B6200 Backup System, Recommended Configuration Guidelines
QUESTION 4
A customer requests a storage and server environment assessment prior to the installation of additional SAN components. Which HP software utility provides a quick and accurate view of the customers SAN topology?
A. Storage Security Self-Assessment Tool
B. SAN Visibility
C. Storage Product Selector
D. SAN Designer
Answer: B
Explanation:
SAN Visibility is a complementary software utility for HP customers that helps with SAN Analysis, SAN Diagnostics and SAN Optimization. SAN Visibility saves you considerable time, money, and effort by automating inventory activities and providing a quick and accurate view of your SAN topology. SAN Visibility has an automated report generation feature that produces recommendations, topology diagrams, and informative SAN element reports for switches, host bus adapters and storage array connectivity. SAN Visibility runs on any Windows desktop or laptop which has network connectivity to a switch within your SAN.
Incorrect:
Not A: HP's storage security self-assessment tool helps you gauge your storage privacy vulnerabilities online and free of charge--and gain valuable insight on how to better manage risk, protect sensitive data and comply with data privacy regulations.
QUESTION 5
A large enterprise is experiencing exponential growth of data but shrinking backup windows. They need to design, plan, and integrate a comprehensive disaster recovery solution for all their data centers. Part of their disaster recovery solution must include data migration to a remote site.
How does the HP StoreOnce 6200 Backup System respond to this customer's requirements?
A. by supporting more than 32 concurrent data streams to a single VTL or NAS share device
B. by supporting a single fabric with dual switches where the drives are presented to a single port for
no single point of failure
C. by requiring a smaller volume of seeding data to be sent over a WAN link than previous StoreOnce
D2D models
D. by providing built-in low-bandwidth replication for cost-effective copies of data offsite
Answer: D
Explanation:
Challenges in Enterprise Data Protection Requirements for a modern Enterprise Data Protection solution have many drivers:-
* Exponential growth of data Shrinking backup windows
* The need to design, plan and integrate a comprehensive Disaster Recovery capability
* The need for backup devices to be more available than ever before
The HP B6200 StoreOnce Backup System responds to all these requirements by providing:
* Deduplication to drive more efficient storage of data
* Large device scalability to ensure every backup has access to devices and, so, reduce queuing time
* (D) In-built low bandwidth replication for cost-effective copies of data offsite as part of a Disaster Recovery plan
* HP Autonomic failover (with appropriate ISV software) to allow backups to continue, even if a node in an HP B6200 StoreOnce Backup System fails.
* High scalability in terms of capacity, performance and replication to ensure the system grows as your business grows.
Reference; HP B6200 Backup System, Recommended Configuration Guidelines
QUESTION 6
Which tool does the HP StoreVirtual 4000 solution provide to help customers monitor array health?
A. Command View
B. Centralized Management Console
C. FCTool
D. SAN Toolbox
Answer: B
Explanation:
HP LeftHand P4000 Centralized Management Console (CMC) includes possibilities
to:
* monitoring arrays
Incorrect:
Not D: The SAN toolbox is used to provide a simple and effective way to represent the various components of a SAN configuration.
Not A: Want to reduce IT costs and management complexity for your arrays and SANs? Need to be ready for the next set of changes?
HP Command View EVA Software provides you with a powerfully simple storage management experience, automates and aggregates storage management to reduce complexity and increase productivity. Quickly and easily automate tasks such as configuring RAID groups.
Provisioning capacity is simple, and you can dynamically expand LUNs and add drives online without downtime to quickly meet changing business needs. HP Command View EVA Software is a comprehensive software suite designed to simplify array provisioning and management of all HP EVA family of storage array products.
You can easily create Vdisks and grow or shrink LUNs, all without downtime. Command View EVA Software allows you to replicate data with snapshots for immediate use.
And you can feel secure about your data with the industry-leading security features.
QUESTION 7
A company with a first-generation deduplication appliance is migrating to an HP StoreOnce 6200 Backup System. After migration, what will be the size of the deduplication block?
A. 4 kb
B. 8 kb
C. 16 kb
D. 32 kb
Answer: A
Explanation:
Deduplication Optimization
HP created a highly-optimized deduplication approach that introduces time- and space-saving techniques. With the goal of eliminating the maximum amount of redundancy in its data inspection, while also maintaining a small index to deliver the fastest performance, the company focused on two components of its deduplication approach: an average variable chunk size of 4K, and a sparse index.
HP's Adaptive Micro-Chunking uses variable-length data segments or chunks. The backup stream is broken down into approximately 4K variable-length segments that are examined for redundancy versus previously stored information. Smaller segments means there are more chunks and index comparisons, which also means a higher potential to locate and eliminate redundancy (and produce higher reduction ratios). Comparative solutions use block sizes that range from 8K to 32K. The tradeoff with small chunk sizes is a greater number of index look-ups--which could mean slower deduplication performance. However, HP Labs developed HP Predictive Acceleration technology to maintain performance and reduce RAM requirements. By using a subset of key values stored in memory, StoreOnce determines a small number of sequences already stored on disk that are similar to any given input sequence--what HP refers to as sparse indexing. Then each input sequence is only deduplicated against those few sequences. This minimizes disk IO and uses less disk and little memory, creating more efficiency and enabling faster ingest and, importantly, restoration of data. HP's approach accelerates reads/writes, and delivers rapid ingest rates of up to 28 TB/hour. Predictive Acceleration has enabled HP to require up to 50% less RAM than comparable solutions.
QUESTION 8
A customer plans to migrate data from an HP EVA4400 to an HP 3PAR StoreServ 7000. The customer has VMware vSphere 5 that uses the HP EVA4400.
How can the customer migrate the VMware storage without disruption?
A. by configuring load-balancing between storage systems
B. by verifying the EVA is running a supported firmware
C. by upgrading the VMware vSphere version
D. by configuring multipathing between storage systems
Answer: A
Explanation:
The concept of a storage profile, introduced in vSphere 5, extends the base VASA functionality. These profiles are used in conjunction with the capabilities of the LUN to determine which LUNs meet the needs of a VM. vSphere 5 can use this information to migrate virtual machines between LUNs for load balancing using Storage Distributed Resource Scheduler (DRS) while maintaining the storage performance and availability needs (RAID level, etc.) of the virtual machine. These profiles also allow vSphere to make placement decisions automatically based on the needs of the VM and the available datastores, further reducing the administration impact.
Reference: HP 3PAR StoreServ Storage and VMware vSphere 5 best practices
QUESTION 9
A large enterprise currently has an HP Virtual Library System (VLS) and plans to migrate to an HP StoreOnce 6200 Backup System. Which best practice must the enterprise consider during this migration?
A. The HP VLS should be connected to a Fibre Channel switch.
B. No more than 16 data streams should be run to a single VLS device concurrently.
C. They should use NPIV to connect the HP StoreOnce 6200 Backup to the nodes as different devices.
D. Multiplexing is not recommended for the HP StoreOnce 6200 Backup
Answer: D
Explanation:
Do not send multiplexed data to StoreOnce B6200/D2D Backup Systems. "Multiplexing" data streams from different sources into a single stream in order to get higher throughput used to be a common best practice when using physical tape drives. This was a necessity in order to make the physical tape drive run in streaming mode, especially if the individual hosts could not supply data fast enough. But multiplexing is not required and is in fact a BAD practice when it comes to D2D or B6200 deduplication devices.
Note:
* Users familiar with the HP VLS System should be aware that the HP StoreOnce B6200 Backup System does not behave in the same way and needs a completely different approach when architecting and tuning for best performance. Do not assume that an HP B6200 Backup System can replace an HP VLS System without major re-evaluation of requirements and alignment with HP B200 best practices.
Reference; HP B6200 Backup System, Recommended Configuration Guidelines
QUESTION 10
A company is experiencing performance problems on a third-party storage system with a large VMware environment. The company plans to migrate to an HP 3PAR StoreServ 7000.
Which benefit will the company realize from this migration?
A. ability to handle demand spikes
B. automated operating system deployment
C. support for VMware VAAI
D. built-in virtual machine management
Answer: C
Explanation:
HP 3PAR Application Software Suite for VMware The HP 3PAR Application Software Suite for VMware provides everything you need to make your VMware environment more agile and efficient-including Recovery Manager for VMware, Host Explorer for VMware, VASA support, and three essential plug-ins: the VMware Site Replication Manager (SRM) Adapter, the 3PAR VAAI plug-in, and the 3PAR management plug-in for VMware View. Application Software Suite for VMware uses system-based licensing.
Reference; Quickspecs, HP 3PAR StoreServ 7000
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In which HP rack is the factory Integration of an HP StoreServ 7000 supported?
A. HP 5642 rack
B. HP G3 rack
C. HP 10000 rack
D. HPV142 rack
Answer: C
Explanation:
Choose Racking Options
The HP 3PAR StoreServ 7000 is compatible with most industry standard 4-post EIA 19 inch racks with square mounting holes, including
the HP Intelligent Series Rack and the HP 10000 G2 Series Rack. The HP 3PAR StoreServ 7000 can be factory configured and shipped in
a rack or shipped without a rack for field integration into an existing rack. The rack used for factory integration is the HP Intelligent
Series Rack.
QUESTION 2
You are meeting with a customer that has a small business with an unpredictable workload in a virtualized environment. Which product family from the HP array portfolio do you lead your discussion with?
A. P2000
B. P4000
C. X3000
D. P6000
Answer: A
Explanation:
* HP P2000 G3 SAS MSA
Affordable, direct attach, externalshared storage solution that provides a more efficient balance of scalability, reliability, and cost efficiency for small to midsize environments. Designed to be easytodeploy, and secure, along with low management costs while driving rapid return on investment (ROI) through efficient storage consolidation. HP MSA P2000 arrays ship standard with 64 Snapshots and Volume Copy enabled for increased data protection.
Incorrect:
Not C: HP X3000 Network Storage Systems are enhanced Windows-powered gateway and shared storage solutions for your medium business, workgroup, or datacenter environment.
QUESTION 3
A customer needs to replicate data from a remote location to an HP StoreOnce B6200 Backup.
What should the customer consider when planning the replication?
A. The HP D2D sizing tool should be used to size link speed and understand concurrency restraints.
B. Concurrency control should be used if the replication is not run at the same times as backups and
housekeeping jobs.
C. Separate replication jobs should be created for each data type.
D. Backups and housekeeping jobs should be run in the replication window.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The replication best practices that apply to HP StoreOnce D2D Backup Systems are equally as valid for the HP B6200 StoreOnce Backup System.
Best practices include:
* Use the Sizing tool to size replication link speed and understand replication concurrency restraints.
Reference: HP B6200 Backup System, Recommended Configuration Guidelines
QUESTION 4
A customer requests a storage and server environment assessment prior to the installation of additional SAN components. Which HP software utility provides a quick and accurate view of the customers SAN topology?
A. Storage Security Self-Assessment Tool
B. SAN Visibility
C. Storage Product Selector
D. SAN Designer
Answer: B
Explanation:
SAN Visibility is a complementary software utility for HP customers that helps with SAN Analysis, SAN Diagnostics and SAN Optimization. SAN Visibility saves you considerable time, money, and effort by automating inventory activities and providing a quick and accurate view of your SAN topology. SAN Visibility has an automated report generation feature that produces recommendations, topology diagrams, and informative SAN element reports for switches, host bus adapters and storage array connectivity. SAN Visibility runs on any Windows desktop or laptop which has network connectivity to a switch within your SAN.
Incorrect:
Not A: HP's storage security self-assessment tool helps you gauge your storage privacy vulnerabilities online and free of charge--and gain valuable insight on how to better manage risk, protect sensitive data and comply with data privacy regulations.
QUESTION 5
A large enterprise is experiencing exponential growth of data but shrinking backup windows. They need to design, plan, and integrate a comprehensive disaster recovery solution for all their data centers. Part of their disaster recovery solution must include data migration to a remote site.
How does the HP StoreOnce 6200 Backup System respond to this customer's requirements?
A. by supporting more than 32 concurrent data streams to a single VTL or NAS share device
B. by supporting a single fabric with dual switches where the drives are presented to a single port for
no single point of failure
C. by requiring a smaller volume of seeding data to be sent over a WAN link than previous StoreOnce
D2D models
D. by providing built-in low-bandwidth replication for cost-effective copies of data offsite
Answer: D
Explanation:
Challenges in Enterprise Data Protection Requirements for a modern Enterprise Data Protection solution have many drivers:-
* Exponential growth of data Shrinking backup windows
* The need to design, plan and integrate a comprehensive Disaster Recovery capability
* The need for backup devices to be more available than ever before
The HP B6200 StoreOnce Backup System responds to all these requirements by providing:
* Deduplication to drive more efficient storage of data
* Large device scalability to ensure every backup has access to devices and, so, reduce queuing time
* (D) In-built low bandwidth replication for cost-effective copies of data offsite as part of a Disaster Recovery plan
* HP Autonomic failover (with appropriate ISV software) to allow backups to continue, even if a node in an HP B6200 StoreOnce Backup System fails.
* High scalability in terms of capacity, performance and replication to ensure the system grows as your business grows.
Reference; HP B6200 Backup System, Recommended Configuration Guidelines
QUESTION 6
Which tool does the HP StoreVirtual 4000 solution provide to help customers monitor array health?
A. Command View
B. Centralized Management Console
C. FCTool
D. SAN Toolbox
Answer: B
Explanation:
HP LeftHand P4000 Centralized Management Console (CMC) includes possibilities
to:
* monitoring arrays
Incorrect:
Not D: The SAN toolbox is used to provide a simple and effective way to represent the various components of a SAN configuration.
Not A: Want to reduce IT costs and management complexity for your arrays and SANs? Need to be ready for the next set of changes?
HP Command View EVA Software provides you with a powerfully simple storage management experience, automates and aggregates storage management to reduce complexity and increase productivity. Quickly and easily automate tasks such as configuring RAID groups.
Provisioning capacity is simple, and you can dynamically expand LUNs and add drives online without downtime to quickly meet changing business needs. HP Command View EVA Software is a comprehensive software suite designed to simplify array provisioning and management of all HP EVA family of storage array products.
You can easily create Vdisks and grow or shrink LUNs, all without downtime. Command View EVA Software allows you to replicate data with snapshots for immediate use.
And you can feel secure about your data with the industry-leading security features.
QUESTION 7
A company with a first-generation deduplication appliance is migrating to an HP StoreOnce 6200 Backup System. After migration, what will be the size of the deduplication block?
A. 4 kb
B. 8 kb
C. 16 kb
D. 32 kb
Answer: A
Explanation:
Deduplication Optimization
HP created a highly-optimized deduplication approach that introduces time- and space-saving techniques. With the goal of eliminating the maximum amount of redundancy in its data inspection, while also maintaining a small index to deliver the fastest performance, the company focused on two components of its deduplication approach: an average variable chunk size of 4K, and a sparse index.
HP's Adaptive Micro-Chunking uses variable-length data segments or chunks. The backup stream is broken down into approximately 4K variable-length segments that are examined for redundancy versus previously stored information. Smaller segments means there are more chunks and index comparisons, which also means a higher potential to locate and eliminate redundancy (and produce higher reduction ratios). Comparative solutions use block sizes that range from 8K to 32K. The tradeoff with small chunk sizes is a greater number of index look-ups--which could mean slower deduplication performance. However, HP Labs developed HP Predictive Acceleration technology to maintain performance and reduce RAM requirements. By using a subset of key values stored in memory, StoreOnce determines a small number of sequences already stored on disk that are similar to any given input sequence--what HP refers to as sparse indexing. Then each input sequence is only deduplicated against those few sequences. This minimizes disk IO and uses less disk and little memory, creating more efficiency and enabling faster ingest and, importantly, restoration of data. HP's approach accelerates reads/writes, and delivers rapid ingest rates of up to 28 TB/hour. Predictive Acceleration has enabled HP to require up to 50% less RAM than comparable solutions.
QUESTION 8
A customer plans to migrate data from an HP EVA4400 to an HP 3PAR StoreServ 7000. The customer has VMware vSphere 5 that uses the HP EVA4400.
How can the customer migrate the VMware storage without disruption?
A. by configuring load-balancing between storage systems
B. by verifying the EVA is running a supported firmware
C. by upgrading the VMware vSphere version
D. by configuring multipathing between storage systems
Answer: A
Explanation:
The concept of a storage profile, introduced in vSphere 5, extends the base VASA functionality. These profiles are used in conjunction with the capabilities of the LUN to determine which LUNs meet the needs of a VM. vSphere 5 can use this information to migrate virtual machines between LUNs for load balancing using Storage Distributed Resource Scheduler (DRS) while maintaining the storage performance and availability needs (RAID level, etc.) of the virtual machine. These profiles also allow vSphere to make placement decisions automatically based on the needs of the VM and the available datastores, further reducing the administration impact.
Reference: HP 3PAR StoreServ Storage and VMware vSphere 5 best practices
QUESTION 9
A large enterprise currently has an HP Virtual Library System (VLS) and plans to migrate to an HP StoreOnce 6200 Backup System. Which best practice must the enterprise consider during this migration?
A. The HP VLS should be connected to a Fibre Channel switch.
B. No more than 16 data streams should be run to a single VLS device concurrently.
C. They should use NPIV to connect the HP StoreOnce 6200 Backup to the nodes as different devices.
D. Multiplexing is not recommended for the HP StoreOnce 6200 Backup
Answer: D
Explanation:
Do not send multiplexed data to StoreOnce B6200/D2D Backup Systems. "Multiplexing" data streams from different sources into a single stream in order to get higher throughput used to be a common best practice when using physical tape drives. This was a necessity in order to make the physical tape drive run in streaming mode, especially if the individual hosts could not supply data fast enough. But multiplexing is not required and is in fact a BAD practice when it comes to D2D or B6200 deduplication devices.
Note:
* Users familiar with the HP VLS System should be aware that the HP StoreOnce B6200 Backup System does not behave in the same way and needs a completely different approach when architecting and tuning for best performance. Do not assume that an HP B6200 Backup System can replace an HP VLS System without major re-evaluation of requirements and alignment with HP B200 best practices.
Reference; HP B6200 Backup System, Recommended Configuration Guidelines
QUESTION 10
A company is experiencing performance problems on a third-party storage system with a large VMware environment. The company plans to migrate to an HP 3PAR StoreServ 7000.
Which benefit will the company realize from this migration?
A. ability to handle demand spikes
B. automated operating system deployment
C. support for VMware VAAI
D. built-in virtual machine management
Answer: C
Explanation:
HP 3PAR Application Software Suite for VMware The HP 3PAR Application Software Suite for VMware provides everything you need to make your VMware environment more agile and efficient-including Recovery Manager for VMware, Host Explorer for VMware, VASA support, and three essential plug-ins: the VMware Site Replication Manager (SRM) Adapter, the 3PAR VAAI plug-in, and the 3PAR management plug-in for VMware View. Application Software Suite for VMware uses system-based licensing.
Reference; Quickspecs, HP 3PAR StoreServ 7000
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Tuesday, May 20, 2014
Official 2014 Latest IBM C2010-565 Demo Free Download!
QUESTION 1
A customer wants to add some logic around specific IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 poller generated events. Where would an administrator put this logic?
A. add an exception filter clause to the ncmonitor.noEvent table
B. modify the nco_p_ncpmonitor rules file to include the required logic
C. modify the ncp_poller event generation ruleset to prevent the events from being sent
D. change the EventGatewaySchema.cfg configuration file to prevent the events from
reaching the ObjectServer
Answer: B
QUESTION 2
What does this entry do in the DiscoCollectorFinderSeeds.DOMAIN.cfg in IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 (ITNM)?
insert into collectorFinder.collectorRules ( m_Host, m_Port, m_NumRetries ) values ( "172.16.25.1", 8082, 5 ) ;
A. The collector agent running on the ITNM server connects to the EMS running on port
8082 to collect its data.
B. The collector agent running on the ITNM server connects to the collector running on port
8082 to collect its data.
C. The collector agent running on 172 16 25 1 connects locally to the collector running on port
8082 to collect its data.
D. The collector agent running on the ITNM server connects to the collector running on
172.16.25 1 port 8082 to collect its data.
Answer: D
QUESTION 3
How can discovery be configured to run at 7:00 p.m. every night?
A. run the script $PRECI`SION_HOME/scripts/perl/scripts/ncp_autodiscovery.pl 1900
B. edit the SPRECISIONJHOMBdisco/stitchers/FullDiscovery.stch file and add in the line
within the StitcherTrigger section:
ActOnDemand(( m_TimeOfDay) values (1900););
C. edit the $PRECISION_HOME/disco/stitchers/FullDiscovery.stch file and add in the line
within the StitcherTrigger section:
ActOnTimedTrigger(( m_TimeOfDay) values (1900););
D. edit the $PRECISION_HOME/disco/stitchers/FullDiscovery stch stitcher and add in the
line within the StitcherRules section:
ActOnDemand(( m_TimeOfDay) values (1900););
Answer: C
QUESTION 4
Which restriction is in place when using a silent install mode?
A. The installation process cannot be canceled at any time
B. The silent install file cannot be edited after it has been created.
C. The silent install file cannot be moved between hosts and then reused.
D. The silent install mode is only suitable for a default standard installation
Answer: A
QUESTION 5
A company wants to create a new drop-down list that an operator can use when creating new dynamic network views. The list will hold the customerName and customerLocation information. This information was collected during the discovery phase and added to the model. The administrator has already extended the NCIM database with a new table called Customer which has two fields:
customerName and customerLocation. The model has been configured to populate this new table. Which additional step does the administrator need to take to display the new table in the dropdown list?
A. add this table to the appropriate section in the topoviz.properties
B. modify the ncimMetaDataxml file by adding the appropriate table and data fields
C. modify the DBEntityDetails.cfg file by specifying a new drop-down list and the name of the
table created in the NCIM database
D. no additional step is required as the network view configuration automatically has access to
all of the tables in the NCIM database and will create a drop-down list for each and every table
Answer: B
QUESTION 6
In IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 given a requirement to discover a new node but not place it in the topology correctly, which two tasks must be performed when doing partial rediscovery? (Choose two.)
A. ensure the option Network Discovery Configuration > Advanced > Enable Rediscovery
Rebuild Layers is checked
B. ensure the necessary agents are enabled under Network Discovery Configuration >
Partial Rediscovery Agents tab
C. ensure the option Network Discovery Configuration > Advanced > Enable Rediscovery
Rebuild Layers is unchecked
D. ensure the option Network Discovery Configuration > Advanced > Enable Rediscovery
of Related Devices is checked
E. ensure the option Network Discovery Configuration > Advanced > Enable Rediscovery
of Related Devices is unchecked
Answer: BC
QUESTION 7
Which file contains the SNMP community strings and settings for an IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 (ITNM) domain named ITNM NCP?
A. CtrlServices.ITNM_NCP.cfg
B. SnmpStackSchema.ITNM_NCP.cfg
C. SnmpStackSecuritylnfo.ITNM_NCP.cfg
D. DiscoSnmpHelperSchema.ITNM_NCP.cfg
Answer: C
QUESTION 8
The IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 administrator received a request to create a new domain with a default set of configuration files and poll policies. A Dbl_ogins.DOMAIN.cfg file has already been created with the appropriate access details. Which action must be taken?
A. rundomain_create.pl -domain <DOMAIN>
B. rundomain_create.pl -domain <DOMAIN> -default
C. manually insert the domain details into the ncim.domainMgr table
D. start the ncp_ctrl process for the new domain name - defaults will be applied
Answer: A
QUESTION 9
How should an administrator deploy IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 using a command line installation on a Windows system?
A. console_install.exe
B. launchpad_console.exe
C. launchpad.exe -console
D. install.exe -i console
Answer: D
QUESTION 10
If NCIM replication is enabled, which statement is true?
A. Only IBM DB2 can be used for NCIM replication.
B. Two NCIM databases exist, one in the primary domain and one in the backup domain.
C. IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 (ITNM) must connect to a pair of virtual ObjectServers.
D. There will only be one ncp_g_event running for all of ITNM.
Answer: B
QUESTION 11
By default, which three fields are used by the event gateway to link an event to a topology entity? (Choose three.)
A. @Node
B. @Class
C. @bEventld
D. @Identifier
E. @LocalPriObj
F. @LocalNodeAlias
Answer: CEF
QUESTION 12
Which two statements are true about installing IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 (ITNMJ on a Solaris platform? {Choose two.)
A. The ITNM destination directory must be owned as root.
B. If ITNM is installed as a non-root user, all future Tivoli products must be installed as
the same user.
C. The setup_setuid_as_root.sh script must be run as root if ITNM is installed and will
run as nonroot.
D. The setup_setuid_as_root.sh script must be run as non-root if ITNM is installed and
will run as non-root.
E. Multiple ITNM installations on the same server can be installed with both the root
account and a non-root account.
Answer: BC
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A customer wants to add some logic around specific IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 poller generated events. Where would an administrator put this logic?
A. add an exception filter clause to the ncmonitor.noEvent table
B. modify the nco_p_ncpmonitor rules file to include the required logic
C. modify the ncp_poller event generation ruleset to prevent the events from being sent
D. change the EventGatewaySchema.cfg configuration file to prevent the events from
reaching the ObjectServer
Answer: B
QUESTION 2
What does this entry do in the DiscoCollectorFinderSeeds.DOMAIN.cfg in IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 (ITNM)?
insert into collectorFinder.collectorRules ( m_Host, m_Port, m_NumRetries ) values ( "172.16.25.1", 8082, 5 ) ;
A. The collector agent running on the ITNM server connects to the EMS running on port
8082 to collect its data.
B. The collector agent running on the ITNM server connects to the collector running on port
8082 to collect its data.
C. The collector agent running on 172 16 25 1 connects locally to the collector running on port
8082 to collect its data.
D. The collector agent running on the ITNM server connects to the collector running on
172.16.25 1 port 8082 to collect its data.
Answer: D
QUESTION 3
How can discovery be configured to run at 7:00 p.m. every night?
A. run the script $PRECI`SION_HOME/scripts/perl/scripts/ncp_autodiscovery.pl 1900
B. edit the SPRECISIONJHOMBdisco/stitchers/FullDiscovery.stch file and add in the line
within the StitcherTrigger section:
ActOnDemand(( m_TimeOfDay) values (1900););
C. edit the $PRECISION_HOME/disco/stitchers/FullDiscovery.stch file and add in the line
within the StitcherTrigger section:
ActOnTimedTrigger(( m_TimeOfDay) values (1900););
D. edit the $PRECISION_HOME/disco/stitchers/FullDiscovery stch stitcher and add in the
line within the StitcherRules section:
ActOnDemand(( m_TimeOfDay) values (1900););
Answer: C
QUESTION 4
Which restriction is in place when using a silent install mode?
A. The installation process cannot be canceled at any time
B. The silent install file cannot be edited after it has been created.
C. The silent install file cannot be moved between hosts and then reused.
D. The silent install mode is only suitable for a default standard installation
Answer: A
QUESTION 5
A company wants to create a new drop-down list that an operator can use when creating new dynamic network views. The list will hold the customerName and customerLocation information. This information was collected during the discovery phase and added to the model. The administrator has already extended the NCIM database with a new table called Customer which has two fields:
customerName and customerLocation. The model has been configured to populate this new table. Which additional step does the administrator need to take to display the new table in the dropdown list?
A. add this table to the appropriate section in the topoviz.properties
B. modify the ncimMetaDataxml file by adding the appropriate table and data fields
C. modify the DBEntityDetails.cfg file by specifying a new drop-down list and the name of the
table created in the NCIM database
D. no additional step is required as the network view configuration automatically has access to
all of the tables in the NCIM database and will create a drop-down list for each and every table
Answer: B
QUESTION 6
In IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 given a requirement to discover a new node but not place it in the topology correctly, which two tasks must be performed when doing partial rediscovery? (Choose two.)
A. ensure the option Network Discovery Configuration > Advanced > Enable Rediscovery
Rebuild Layers is checked
B. ensure the necessary agents are enabled under Network Discovery Configuration >
Partial Rediscovery Agents tab
C. ensure the option Network Discovery Configuration > Advanced > Enable Rediscovery
Rebuild Layers is unchecked
D. ensure the option Network Discovery Configuration > Advanced > Enable Rediscovery
of Related Devices is checked
E. ensure the option Network Discovery Configuration > Advanced > Enable Rediscovery
of Related Devices is unchecked
Answer: BC
QUESTION 7
Which file contains the SNMP community strings and settings for an IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 (ITNM) domain named ITNM NCP?
A. CtrlServices.ITNM_NCP.cfg
B. SnmpStackSchema.ITNM_NCP.cfg
C. SnmpStackSecuritylnfo.ITNM_NCP.cfg
D. DiscoSnmpHelperSchema.ITNM_NCP.cfg
Answer: C
QUESTION 8
The IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 administrator received a request to create a new domain with a default set of configuration files and poll policies. A Dbl_ogins.DOMAIN.cfg file has already been created with the appropriate access details. Which action must be taken?
A. rundomain_create.pl -domain <DOMAIN>
B. rundomain_create.pl -domain <DOMAIN> -default
C. manually insert the domain details into the ncim.domainMgr table
D. start the ncp_ctrl process for the new domain name - defaults will be applied
Answer: A
QUESTION 9
How should an administrator deploy IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 using a command line installation on a Windows system?
A. console_install.exe
B. launchpad_console.exe
C. launchpad.exe -console
D. install.exe -i console
Answer: D
QUESTION 10
If NCIM replication is enabled, which statement is true?
A. Only IBM DB2 can be used for NCIM replication.
B. Two NCIM databases exist, one in the primary domain and one in the backup domain.
C. IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 (ITNM) must connect to a pair of virtual ObjectServers.
D. There will only be one ncp_g_event running for all of ITNM.
Answer: B
QUESTION 11
By default, which three fields are used by the event gateway to link an event to a topology entity? (Choose three.)
A. @Node
B. @Class
C. @bEventld
D. @Identifier
E. @LocalPriObj
F. @LocalNodeAlias
Answer: CEF
QUESTION 12
Which two statements are true about installing IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 (ITNMJ on a Solaris platform? {Choose two.)
A. The ITNM destination directory must be owned as root.
B. If ITNM is installed as a non-root user, all future Tivoli products must be installed as
the same user.
C. The setup_setuid_as_root.sh script must be run as root if ITNM is installed and will
run as nonroot.
D. The setup_setuid_as_root.sh script must be run as non-root if ITNM is installed and
will run as non-root.
E. Multiple ITNM installations on the same server can be installed with both the root
account and a non-root account.
Answer: BC
Monday, May 19, 2014
Official 2014 Latest Microsoft 70-680 Exam Dump Free Download(111-120)!
QUESTION 111
The Aero Shake feature will work if which of the following conditions are met? Choose Two.
A. A display adapter compatible with WDDM is installed.
B. Aero features are downloaded from Microsoft.
C. The windows experience index is at least 2.
D. The Windows Experience Index is 3 or greater.
Answer: AD
QUESTION 112
You manage a computer that runs Windows 7. You are tasked to identify which applications were installed during the last week.
What Windows component would you use to find this information? Choose two.
A. Check the Windows System Change Log in the Control Panel.
B. View the events in the Applications Log under Windows Logs in the System and Security component
section of the Control Panel.
C. Review the informational events from Reliability Monitor.
D. Check the Windows System Diagnostics Report under the Performance Monitor MMC.
Answer: BC
QUESTION 113
Which of the following Windows 7 Editions allows you to join an Active Directory domain? Choose three.
A. Windows Home Edition
B. Windows Professional Edition
C. Windows Ultimate Edition
D. Windows Enterprise Edition
Answer: BCD
Explanation:
QUESTION 114
All the games including Titan Chess come with which versions of Windows 7? Choose two.
A. Windows Home Edition
B. Windows Professional Edition
C. Windows Ultimate Edition
D. Windows Enterprise Edition
Answer: CD
QUESTION 115
Which of the following is not a minimum requirement to install Windows 7?
A. 1 GHz or faster 32-bit (x86) or a 64-bit (x64) processor
B. 4 GB RAM (32-bit)/2 GB RAM (64-bit)
C. 16 GB available disk space (32-bit)/20 GB (64-bit)
D. DirectX 9 graphics processor with WDDM 1.0 or higher driver
Answer: B
QUESTION 116
Which of the following is not a rating for games in Windows 7?
A. General Audience (G)
B. Everyone (E)
C. Teen (T)
D. Adults Only (AO)
Answer: A
QUESTION 117
In Windows 7 you can control when users such as kids can login to Windows 7. Which of the following best describes where to configure this option?
A. You cannot choose this feature unless you are connected to a domain.
B. Go to the Start, Control Panel, User Accounts and Family Safety, Setup Parental Controls, and then
choose Time Restrictions.
C. Go to Start, Control Panel. User Profiles, and then Time Restriction Settings.
D. Go to the Homegroup settings and choose Offline Time Settings.
Answer: B
QUESTION 118
Which of the following best describes how the user is alerted with information system and configuration alerts?
A. A popup occurs and the Windows 7 desktop contrast is dimmed. Until you acknowledge the alert the
screen will not move.
B. If Aero is installed the shaking alert flag appears in the index bar of every open window.
C. A flag in the taskbar with a red "x" indicates there is a problem needing attention.
D. All of the above.
Answer: C
QUESTION 119
If you have a router in the network your connected to and the Default Gateway is set to 192.168.1.1 and the subnet mask is 255.255.255.0, which of the following are useable IP addresses on that network?
A. 192.168.1.1
B. 192.168.1.300
C. 192.168.1.30
D. 192.168.2.10
Answer: C
QUESTION 120
Which of the following is true of Windows 7?
A. MailCentral is included as the new default mail client with Windows 7.
B. Outlook Express is included with Windows 7.
C. Microsoft Outlook is included with Windows 7.
D. There is no preinstalled mail client included with Windows 7.
Answer: D
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The Aero Shake feature will work if which of the following conditions are met? Choose Two.
A. A display adapter compatible with WDDM is installed.
B. Aero features are downloaded from Microsoft.
C. The windows experience index is at least 2.
D. The Windows Experience Index is 3 or greater.
Answer: AD
QUESTION 112
You manage a computer that runs Windows 7. You are tasked to identify which applications were installed during the last week.
What Windows component would you use to find this information? Choose two.
A. Check the Windows System Change Log in the Control Panel.
B. View the events in the Applications Log under Windows Logs in the System and Security component
section of the Control Panel.
C. Review the informational events from Reliability Monitor.
D. Check the Windows System Diagnostics Report under the Performance Monitor MMC.
Answer: BC
QUESTION 113
Which of the following Windows 7 Editions allows you to join an Active Directory domain? Choose three.
A. Windows Home Edition
B. Windows Professional Edition
C. Windows Ultimate Edition
D. Windows Enterprise Edition
Answer: BCD
Explanation:
QUESTION 114
All the games including Titan Chess come with which versions of Windows 7? Choose two.
A. Windows Home Edition
B. Windows Professional Edition
C. Windows Ultimate Edition
D. Windows Enterprise Edition
Answer: CD
QUESTION 115
Which of the following is not a minimum requirement to install Windows 7?
A. 1 GHz or faster 32-bit (x86) or a 64-bit (x64) processor
B. 4 GB RAM (32-bit)/2 GB RAM (64-bit)
C. 16 GB available disk space (32-bit)/20 GB (64-bit)
D. DirectX 9 graphics processor with WDDM 1.0 or higher driver
Answer: B
QUESTION 116
Which of the following is not a rating for games in Windows 7?
A. General Audience (G)
B. Everyone (E)
C. Teen (T)
D. Adults Only (AO)
Answer: A
QUESTION 117
In Windows 7 you can control when users such as kids can login to Windows 7. Which of the following best describes where to configure this option?
A. You cannot choose this feature unless you are connected to a domain.
B. Go to the Start, Control Panel, User Accounts and Family Safety, Setup Parental Controls, and then
choose Time Restrictions.
C. Go to Start, Control Panel. User Profiles, and then Time Restriction Settings.
D. Go to the Homegroup settings and choose Offline Time Settings.
Answer: B
QUESTION 118
Which of the following best describes how the user is alerted with information system and configuration alerts?
A. A popup occurs and the Windows 7 desktop contrast is dimmed. Until you acknowledge the alert the
screen will not move.
B. If Aero is installed the shaking alert flag appears in the index bar of every open window.
C. A flag in the taskbar with a red "x" indicates there is a problem needing attention.
D. All of the above.
Answer: C
QUESTION 119
If you have a router in the network your connected to and the Default Gateway is set to 192.168.1.1 and the subnet mask is 255.255.255.0, which of the following are useable IP addresses on that network?
A. 192.168.1.1
B. 192.168.1.300
C. 192.168.1.30
D. 192.168.2.10
Answer: C
QUESTION 120
Which of the following is true of Windows 7?
A. MailCentral is included as the new default mail client with Windows 7.
B. Outlook Express is included with Windows 7.
C. Microsoft Outlook is included with Windows 7.
D. There is no preinstalled mail client included with Windows 7.
Answer: D
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QUESTION 101
You manage a stand-alone computer which has only one partition. Windows 7 is run by this computer. The computer is shared by two users that are respectively named User1 and User2. User1 uses Encrypting File System (EFS) to encrypt a file. User1 tries to grant User2 access to the file as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
You have to make sure that User1 is able to grant User2 access to the file. What action should you perform to make sure of this?
A. Instruct User2 to log on to the computer and take ownership of the file.
B. Instruct User2 to log on to the computer and encrypt a file.
C. Instruct User1 to export his certificate to a certificate (.cer) file.
D. Instruct User1 to move the file to a shared folder on the computer.
Answer: B
QUESTION 102
You have a computer that runs Windows 7.
You need to configure the computer to download updates from a local Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) server. What should you do?
A. From Windows Update, modify the Windows Update settings.
B. From the local Group Policy, modify the Windows Update settings.
C. From the System settings, modify the System Protection settings.
D. From the local Group Policy, modify the Location and Sensors settings.
Answer: B
QUESTION 103
You plan to install Windows 7 by using a Windows 7 DVD. You need to perform an automated installation of Windows 7. What should you do?
A. Create an answer file named oobe.xml. Copy the file to a network share.
B. Create an answer file named winnt.sif. Place the file on a removable drive.
C. Create an answer file named sysprep.inf. Copy the file to a network share.
D. Create an answer file named autounattend.xml. Place the file on a removable drive.
Answer: D
QUESTION 104
You have a computer that runs Windows 7.
You perform an image backup. A virus infects the computer and causes the computer to become unresponsive. You need to restore the computer as quickly as possible. What should you do?
A. Start the computer by using the Last Known Good Configuration feature.
B. Start the computer from the Windows 7 DVD and then use the Startup Repair tool.
C. Start the computer from the Windows 7 DVD and then use the System Image Recovery tool.
D. Start the computer from Windows Preinstallation Environment (Windows PE) and then run Imagex.exe.
Answer: C
QUESTION 105
You have a computer that runs Windows 7. Multiple users log on to the computer. You need to deny one user access to removable devices on the computer. All other users must have access to the removable drives. What should you do?
A. From the local Group Policy, modify an application control policy.
B. From Control Panel, modify the BitLocker Drive Encryption settings.
C. From Device Manager, modify the settings of all removable devices.
D. From the local Group Policy, modify a removable storage access policy.
Answer: D
QUESTION 106
You have a computer that runs Windows 7. Your company has three custom applications named app1.exe, app2.exe, and app3.exe. The applications have been digitally signed by the company. You need to create a policy that allows only applications that have been digitally-signed by the company to run. What should you create?
A. An AppLocker executable rule
B. An AppLocker Windows Installer rule
C. A software restriction policy and a certificate rule
D. A software restriction policy and a hash rule
Answer: A
QUESTION 107
A user wants to install the games included with Windows 7 on his PC. They were not installed by default. Windows components can be added or removed using which of the following in Windows 7.
A. Click the Start Bar, Control Panel, Add/Remove Programs, and click Windows Components.
B. Click the Start Bar, Control Panel, Programs, then click Turn Windows features on or off.
C. Click the Start Bar, Settings, Windows Control Center.
D. Right-click the "My Computer" icon, Choose Properties, Choose Computer Management, on the left
pane choose Add Remove Windows Components.
Answer: B
QUESTION 108
You are installing Windows 7 on from the desktop of a Windows XP Professional PC. Which of the following can be performed from the Windows 7 DVD? Choose three.
A. Run setup.exe from the DVD to start the Windows 7 installation.
B. Use the autorun feature on the DVD to start the installation.
C. Perform a full installation of Windows 7.
D. Perform and upgrade of Windows 7 keeping all the Windows XP settings.
Answer: ABC
QUESTION 109
Federated Search connectors are installed using what method?
A. Purchase the Federated Search Installation Tool Pack online and buying individual search connectors
from websites.
B. Download an .osdx file from a valid source. Double click on the downloaded file and choose Add to install.
C. Go to Microsoft's website. Only vendors who have signed up with the Microsoft Federated Search Tool
Writers Guild can participate.
D. Go to Amazon.com and download the Shared Resource Kit for Federated Searches.
Answer: B
QUESTION 110
Which of the following is not a volume type usable by Windows 7?
A. FAT
B. exFAT
C. NTFS
D. All of the above are volume types in Windows 7
Answer: D
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You manage a stand-alone computer which has only one partition. Windows 7 is run by this computer. The computer is shared by two users that are respectively named User1 and User2. User1 uses Encrypting File System (EFS) to encrypt a file. User1 tries to grant User2 access to the file as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
You have to make sure that User1 is able to grant User2 access to the file. What action should you perform to make sure of this?
A. Instruct User2 to log on to the computer and take ownership of the file.
B. Instruct User2 to log on to the computer and encrypt a file.
C. Instruct User1 to export his certificate to a certificate (.cer) file.
D. Instruct User1 to move the file to a shared folder on the computer.
Answer: B
QUESTION 102
You have a computer that runs Windows 7.
You need to configure the computer to download updates from a local Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) server. What should you do?
A. From Windows Update, modify the Windows Update settings.
B. From the local Group Policy, modify the Windows Update settings.
C. From the System settings, modify the System Protection settings.
D. From the local Group Policy, modify the Location and Sensors settings.
Answer: B
QUESTION 103
You plan to install Windows 7 by using a Windows 7 DVD. You need to perform an automated installation of Windows 7. What should you do?
A. Create an answer file named oobe.xml. Copy the file to a network share.
B. Create an answer file named winnt.sif. Place the file on a removable drive.
C. Create an answer file named sysprep.inf. Copy the file to a network share.
D. Create an answer file named autounattend.xml. Place the file on a removable drive.
Answer: D
QUESTION 104
You have a computer that runs Windows 7.
You perform an image backup. A virus infects the computer and causes the computer to become unresponsive. You need to restore the computer as quickly as possible. What should you do?
A. Start the computer by using the Last Known Good Configuration feature.
B. Start the computer from the Windows 7 DVD and then use the Startup Repair tool.
C. Start the computer from the Windows 7 DVD and then use the System Image Recovery tool.
D. Start the computer from Windows Preinstallation Environment (Windows PE) and then run Imagex.exe.
Answer: C
QUESTION 105
You have a computer that runs Windows 7. Multiple users log on to the computer. You need to deny one user access to removable devices on the computer. All other users must have access to the removable drives. What should you do?
A. From the local Group Policy, modify an application control policy.
B. From Control Panel, modify the BitLocker Drive Encryption settings.
C. From Device Manager, modify the settings of all removable devices.
D. From the local Group Policy, modify a removable storage access policy.
Answer: D
QUESTION 106
You have a computer that runs Windows 7. Your company has three custom applications named app1.exe, app2.exe, and app3.exe. The applications have been digitally signed by the company. You need to create a policy that allows only applications that have been digitally-signed by the company to run. What should you create?
A. An AppLocker executable rule
B. An AppLocker Windows Installer rule
C. A software restriction policy and a certificate rule
D. A software restriction policy and a hash rule
Answer: A
QUESTION 107
A user wants to install the games included with Windows 7 on his PC. They were not installed by default. Windows components can be added or removed using which of the following in Windows 7.
A. Click the Start Bar, Control Panel, Add/Remove Programs, and click Windows Components.
B. Click the Start Bar, Control Panel, Programs, then click Turn Windows features on or off.
C. Click the Start Bar, Settings, Windows Control Center.
D. Right-click the "My Computer" icon, Choose Properties, Choose Computer Management, on the left
pane choose Add Remove Windows Components.
Answer: B
QUESTION 108
You are installing Windows 7 on from the desktop of a Windows XP Professional PC. Which of the following can be performed from the Windows 7 DVD? Choose three.
A. Run setup.exe from the DVD to start the Windows 7 installation.
B. Use the autorun feature on the DVD to start the installation.
C. Perform a full installation of Windows 7.
D. Perform and upgrade of Windows 7 keeping all the Windows XP settings.
Answer: ABC
QUESTION 109
Federated Search connectors are installed using what method?
A. Purchase the Federated Search Installation Tool Pack online and buying individual search connectors
from websites.
B. Download an .osdx file from a valid source. Double click on the downloaded file and choose Add to install.
C. Go to Microsoft's website. Only vendors who have signed up with the Microsoft Federated Search Tool
Writers Guild can participate.
D. Go to Amazon.com and download the Shared Resource Kit for Federated Searches.
Answer: B
QUESTION 110
Which of the following is not a volume type usable by Windows 7?
A. FAT
B. exFAT
C. NTFS
D. All of the above are volume types in Windows 7
Answer: D
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QUESTION 91
Which of the following must you download from Microsoft's Web site to obtain USMT 4.0?
A. Windows Anytime Upgrade
B. Windows Upgrade Advisor
C. WAIK
D. Microsoft Toolkit
Answer: C
Explanation:
User State Migration Tool
USMT 4.0 is a command-line utility that allows you to automate the process of user profile migration. The USMT is part of the Windows Automated Installation Kit (WAIK) and is a better tool for performing a large number of profile migrations than Windows Easy Transfer. The USMT can write data to a removable USB storage device or a network share but cannot perform a direct side-by-side migration over the network from the source to the destination computer. The USMT does not support user profile migration using the Windows Easy Transfer cable. USMT migration occurs in two phases, exporting profile data from the source computer using ScanState and importing profile data on the destination computer using LoadState.
QUESTION 92
Which Windows Setup configuration pass applies settings to Windows 7 before Windows Welcome starts?
A. OobeSystem
B. AuditSystem
C. Specialize
D. OfflineServicing
Answer: A
QUESTION 93
You require fault tolerance for your operating system so that your computer running Windows 7 Home Premium can still boot up if a disk fails. You have two disks and unallocated space on your second disk. What should you do?
A. Create a VHD and install an image of your computer on the VHD. Use BCDEdit to make the VHD bootable.
B. Create a RAID-0 volume.
C. Create a RAID-1 volume.
D. Create a RAID-5 volume.
Answer: C
QUESTION 94
You have two computers on the same subnet. The computers have the IPv6 addresses shown in the following table:
You need to test the connection to the IPv6 address from Computer1 to Computer2. Which command should you run?
A. Ping -6 fe80::44df:1b68%12
B. Ping -6 fe80::44df:1b68%10
C. Ping -R fe80::44df:1b68%12
D. Ping -R fe80::44df:1b68%10
Answer: B
Explanation:
If you are pinging from one host to another using link-local addresses, you also need to include your interface ID, for example ping
fe80::39cd:4c93%10.
The % character followed by a number after each IPv6 address is the interface ID. If you want to display the configuration of the IPv6 interfaces on the local computer, you can enter netsh interface ipv6 show address.
Ping -6
Force using IPv6.
QUESTION 95
You have a computer that runs Windows 7. IPv6 is disabled on the computer.
The computer has the following IPv4 settings:
- IP address: 10.1.1.193
- Subnet mask: 255.255.0.0
- Default gateway: 10.1.1.194
- Preferred DNS server: 10.1.1.195
You need to ensure that the computer can only communicate with computers on the local subnet. What should you do?
A. Delete the default gateway address.
B. Delete the preferred DNS server IP address.
C. Configure the subnet mask to use 255.255.255.0.
D. Configure the subnet mask to use 255.255.255.192.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Why gateways work
Default gateways are important to make IP routing work efficiently. In most cases, the router that acts as the default gateway for TCP/IP hosts--either a dedicated router or a computer that connects two or more network segments--maintains knowledge of other networks in the larger network and how to reach them. TCP/IP hosts rely on default gateways for most of their communication needs with hosts on remote network segments. In this way, individual hosts are freed of the burden of having to maintain extensive and continuously updated knowledge about individual remote IP network segments. Only the router that acts as the default gateway needs to maintain this level of routing knowledge to reach other remote network segments in the larger internetwork. If the default gateway fails, communication beyond the local network segment may be impaired. To prevent this, you can use the Advanced TCP/IP Settings dialog box (in Network Connections) for each connection to specify multiple default gateways. You can also use the route command to manually add routes to the routing table for heavily used hosts or networks.
QUESTION 96
You are running Windows 7 on a portable computer. A custom power plan named "On The Move" is optimized for battery life. The computer remains running when the portable computer is closed. You need to change a setting so that when you close the portable computer, it enters sleep mode. Which setting should you change? (To answer, select the appropriate setting in the work area.)
Answer:
QUESTION 97
You have a computer that runs Windows 7. You need to modify the file extensions that are associated to Internet Explorer. What should you do?
A. From Internet Explorer, click Tools and then click Manage Add-ons.
B. From Control Panel, open Default Programs and then click Set Associations.
C. From the local Group Policy, expand Computer Configuration and then click Software Settings.
D. From Window Explorer, right-click %programfiles%\Internet Explorer\iexplore.exe and then click Properties.
Answer: B
QUESTION 98
You have a computer that runs Windows 7.
You run Ipconfig as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) You need to ensure that you can establish a DirectAccess connection to the network.
What should you do first?
A. Create a new VPN connection.
B. Configure a static IPv4 address.
C. Enable IPv6 on the network adapter.
D. Add an additional default gateway address.
Answer: C
QUESTION 99
You have a computer that runs Windows 7. You discover that an application named App1 runs during the startup process. You need to prevent only App1 from running during startup. Users must be allowed to run App1 manually. What should you do?
A. From the local Group Policy, modify the application control policy.
B. From the local Group Policy, modify the software restriction policy.
C. From the System Configuration tool, select Diagnostic Startup.
D. From the System Configuration tool, modify the Startup applications.
Answer: D
QUESTION 100
You are in charge of two computers that are respectively named Computer1 and Computer2. Computer1 runs Windows 7 and Computer2 runs Windows XP Professional.
On Computer1, you enable Remote Desktop as shown in the Remote Desktop exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
Later you log on to Computer2 and try to connect to Computer1 by using Remote Desktop. The connection fails and you receive the error message shown in the Remote Desktop Disconnected exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
You need to ensure, that you can connect to Computer1 by using Remote Desktop. What action should you perform?
A. On Computer1, enable the Allow connections from computers running any version of Remote Desktop setting.
B. On Computer2, assign the Client (Respond Only) IPSec policy.
C. On Computer1, add your user account to the Remote Desktop Users group.
D. On Computer2, create a firewall exception for the Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP).
Answer: A
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Which of the following must you download from Microsoft's Web site to obtain USMT 4.0?
A. Windows Anytime Upgrade
B. Windows Upgrade Advisor
C. WAIK
D. Microsoft Toolkit
Answer: C
Explanation:
User State Migration Tool
USMT 4.0 is a command-line utility that allows you to automate the process of user profile migration. The USMT is part of the Windows Automated Installation Kit (WAIK) and is a better tool for performing a large number of profile migrations than Windows Easy Transfer. The USMT can write data to a removable USB storage device or a network share but cannot perform a direct side-by-side migration over the network from the source to the destination computer. The USMT does not support user profile migration using the Windows Easy Transfer cable. USMT migration occurs in two phases, exporting profile data from the source computer using ScanState and importing profile data on the destination computer using LoadState.
QUESTION 92
Which Windows Setup configuration pass applies settings to Windows 7 before Windows Welcome starts?
A. OobeSystem
B. AuditSystem
C. Specialize
D. OfflineServicing
Answer: A
QUESTION 93
You require fault tolerance for your operating system so that your computer running Windows 7 Home Premium can still boot up if a disk fails. You have two disks and unallocated space on your second disk. What should you do?
A. Create a VHD and install an image of your computer on the VHD. Use BCDEdit to make the VHD bootable.
B. Create a RAID-0 volume.
C. Create a RAID-1 volume.
D. Create a RAID-5 volume.
Answer: C
QUESTION 94
You have two computers on the same subnet. The computers have the IPv6 addresses shown in the following table:
A. Ping -6 fe80::44df:1b68%12
B. Ping -6 fe80::44df:1b68%10
C. Ping -R fe80::44df:1b68%12
D. Ping -R fe80::44df:1b68%10
Answer: B
Explanation:
If you are pinging from one host to another using link-local addresses, you also need to include your interface ID, for example ping
fe80::39cd:4c93%10.
The % character followed by a number after each IPv6 address is the interface ID. If you want to display the configuration of the IPv6 interfaces on the local computer, you can enter netsh interface ipv6 show address.
Ping -6
Force using IPv6.
QUESTION 95
You have a computer that runs Windows 7. IPv6 is disabled on the computer.
The computer has the following IPv4 settings:
- IP address: 10.1.1.193
- Subnet mask: 255.255.0.0
- Default gateway: 10.1.1.194
- Preferred DNS server: 10.1.1.195
You need to ensure that the computer can only communicate with computers on the local subnet. What should you do?
A. Delete the default gateway address.
B. Delete the preferred DNS server IP address.
C. Configure the subnet mask to use 255.255.255.0.
D. Configure the subnet mask to use 255.255.255.192.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Why gateways work
Default gateways are important to make IP routing work efficiently. In most cases, the router that acts as the default gateway for TCP/IP hosts--either a dedicated router or a computer that connects two or more network segments--maintains knowledge of other networks in the larger network and how to reach them. TCP/IP hosts rely on default gateways for most of their communication needs with hosts on remote network segments. In this way, individual hosts are freed of the burden of having to maintain extensive and continuously updated knowledge about individual remote IP network segments. Only the router that acts as the default gateway needs to maintain this level of routing knowledge to reach other remote network segments in the larger internetwork. If the default gateway fails, communication beyond the local network segment may be impaired. To prevent this, you can use the Advanced TCP/IP Settings dialog box (in Network Connections) for each connection to specify multiple default gateways. You can also use the route command to manually add routes to the routing table for heavily used hosts or networks.
QUESTION 96
You are running Windows 7 on a portable computer. A custom power plan named "On The Move" is optimized for battery life. The computer remains running when the portable computer is closed. You need to change a setting so that when you close the portable computer, it enters sleep mode. Which setting should you change? (To answer, select the appropriate setting in the work area.)
QUESTION 97
You have a computer that runs Windows 7. You need to modify the file extensions that are associated to Internet Explorer. What should you do?
A. From Internet Explorer, click Tools and then click Manage Add-ons.
B. From Control Panel, open Default Programs and then click Set Associations.
C. From the local Group Policy, expand Computer Configuration and then click Software Settings.
D. From Window Explorer, right-click %programfiles%\Internet Explorer\iexplore.exe and then click Properties.
Answer: B
QUESTION 98
You have a computer that runs Windows 7.
You run Ipconfig as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) You need to ensure that you can establish a DirectAccess connection to the network.
What should you do first?
A. Create a new VPN connection.
B. Configure a static IPv4 address.
C. Enable IPv6 on the network adapter.
D. Add an additional default gateway address.
Answer: C
QUESTION 99
You have a computer that runs Windows 7. You discover that an application named App1 runs during the startup process. You need to prevent only App1 from running during startup. Users must be allowed to run App1 manually. What should you do?
A. From the local Group Policy, modify the application control policy.
B. From the local Group Policy, modify the software restriction policy.
C. From the System Configuration tool, select Diagnostic Startup.
D. From the System Configuration tool, modify the Startup applications.
Answer: D
QUESTION 100
You are in charge of two computers that are respectively named Computer1 and Computer2. Computer1 runs Windows 7 and Computer2 runs Windows XP Professional.
On Computer1, you enable Remote Desktop as shown in the Remote Desktop exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
A. On Computer1, enable the Allow connections from computers running any version of Remote Desktop setting.
B. On Computer2, assign the Client (Respond Only) IPSec policy.
C. On Computer1, add your user account to the Remote Desktop Users group.
D. On Computer2, create a firewall exception for the Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP).
Answer: A
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QUESTION 1
Which wireless technology is limited to operate in a frequency range with only three non- overlapping channels?
A. 802.1a
B. 802.1x
C. 802.1ad
D. 802.11g
Answer: D
Explanation:
802.11b (and 802.11g) networks offer 11 channels, but only three channels (1,6, and 11) do not overlap with each other. In a large-scale building or campus-wide installation, the ability to useonly three channels can reduce real-world throughput and make avoiding interference from other 802.11b or 802.11g-based wireless networks difficult.
QUESTION 2
Which technology does the HP Virtual Connect support?
A. InfiniBand connection to server backplane
B. Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE)
C. Distributed trunking
D. Intelligent ResilientFramework(IRF)
Answer: B
Explanation:
Virtual Connect interconnect modules provide the following capabilities:
Reduces the number of cables required for an enclosure, compared to using pass-thru modules.
Reduces the number of edge switches that LAN and SAN administrators must manage.
Allows pre-provisioning of the network, so server administrators can add, replace, or upgrade servers without requiringimmediate involvement from the LAN or SAN administrators.
Enables a flatter, less hierarchical network, which reduces equipment and administration costs, reduces latency, andimproves performance.
Delivers direct server-to-server connectivity within the BladeSystem enclosure. This is an ideal way to optimize foreast/west traffic flow, which is becoming more prevalent at the server edge with the growth ofserver virtualization,cloud computing, and distributed applications. Reference:http://h20195.www2.hp.com/V2/GetPDF.aspx%2F4AA4-8174ENW.pdf
QUESTION 3
What is the default payload size for an 802.3 Ethernet frame on HP switches?
A. 1500 bytes
B. 1518 bytes
C. 1522 bytes
D. 9022 bytes
Answer: A
QUESTION 4
Two OSPF routers are on a segment, and both of their interfaces become active. What is the initial OSPF state after an adjacency has formed?
A. Established
B. Exstart
C. Two-way
D. Full
Answer: B
QUESTION 5
A network administrator executes these commands on an HP Comware switch:
[Comware] super password level 1 simple hp1
[Comware] super password level 2 simple hp2
[Comware] super password level 3 simple hp3
[Comware] quit
<Comware>
The network administrator then executes this command to test the configuration:
<Comware> super 0
What is the outcome of the configuration?
A. The network administrator is immediately placed into Monitor view.
B. Access is denied because no level 0 password has been defined.
C. A password of hp0 must be entered to access the view.
D. The network administrator is immediately placed into visitor view.
Answer: D
QUESTION 6
Which STP protection feature does HP recommended against rogue switches?
A. Root Protection should be enabled on access layer switches.
B. BPDU Protection should be enabled on edge ports and uplink ports.
C. Root Protection should be enabled on access and aggregation layer switches.
D. BPDU Protection should be enabled on edge ports.
Answer: D
Explanation:
We want to enable BPDU protection on any "edge ports", or ports that are connected to end user devices (PCs, printers, etc.) -- any device that should not be sending out STP BPDU's. Without BPDU protection, a malicious (or ignorant) user could plug a switch into our network and alter the spanning tree topology.
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Which wireless technology is limited to operate in a frequency range with only three non- overlapping channels?
A. 802.1a
B. 802.1x
C. 802.1ad
D. 802.11g
Answer: D
Explanation:
802.11b (and 802.11g) networks offer 11 channels, but only three channels (1,6, and 11) do not overlap with each other. In a large-scale building or campus-wide installation, the ability to useonly three channels can reduce real-world throughput and make avoiding interference from other 802.11b or 802.11g-based wireless networks difficult.
QUESTION 2
Which technology does the HP Virtual Connect support?
A. InfiniBand connection to server backplane
B. Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE)
C. Distributed trunking
D. Intelligent ResilientFramework(IRF)
Answer: B
Explanation:
Virtual Connect interconnect modules provide the following capabilities:
Reduces the number of cables required for an enclosure, compared to using pass-thru modules.
Reduces the number of edge switches that LAN and SAN administrators must manage.
Allows pre-provisioning of the network, so server administrators can add, replace, or upgrade servers without requiringimmediate involvement from the LAN or SAN administrators.
Enables a flatter, less hierarchical network, which reduces equipment and administration costs, reduces latency, andimproves performance.
Delivers direct server-to-server connectivity within the BladeSystem enclosure. This is an ideal way to optimize foreast/west traffic flow, which is becoming more prevalent at the server edge with the growth ofserver virtualization,cloud computing, and distributed applications. Reference:http://h20195.www2.hp.com/V2/GetPDF.aspx%2F4AA4-8174ENW.pdf
QUESTION 3
What is the default payload size for an 802.3 Ethernet frame on HP switches?
A. 1500 bytes
B. 1518 bytes
C. 1522 bytes
D. 9022 bytes
Answer: A
QUESTION 4
Two OSPF routers are on a segment, and both of their interfaces become active. What is the initial OSPF state after an adjacency has formed?
A. Established
B. Exstart
C. Two-way
D. Full
Answer: B
QUESTION 5
A network administrator executes these commands on an HP Comware switch:
[Comware] super password level 1 simple hp1
[Comware] super password level 2 simple hp2
[Comware] super password level 3 simple hp3
[Comware] quit
<Comware>
The network administrator then executes this command to test the configuration:
<Comware> super 0
What is the outcome of the configuration?
A. The network administrator is immediately placed into Monitor view.
B. Access is denied because no level 0 password has been defined.
C. A password of hp0 must be entered to access the view.
D. The network administrator is immediately placed into visitor view.
Answer: D
QUESTION 6
Which STP protection feature does HP recommended against rogue switches?
A. Root Protection should be enabled on access layer switches.
B. BPDU Protection should be enabled on edge ports and uplink ports.
C. Root Protection should be enabled on access and aggregation layer switches.
D. BPDU Protection should be enabled on edge ports.
Answer: D
Explanation:
We want to enable BPDU protection on any "edge ports", or ports that are connected to end user devices (PCs, printers, etc.) -- any device that should not be sending out STP BPDU's. Without BPDU protection, a malicious (or ignorant) user could plug a switch into our network and alter the spanning tree topology.
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